MCQs on Pharmacology for Staff Nurse and Medical Exams

<div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjcAeW8LnPwhn3AiLLTDNhuAcmZ8o-XwBSXauwYtKAg5VB5Bf8vGj68Vjd_W6z9wNdYrv12pD7dPhihOT3x-_SWrtc0PdudtsOGXa6gujg4VYKBqgKeseG5Oy0JEYGNJyOoQ__zllqh_vNR/s1600/farmakologi_2651+1.jpg" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" height="373" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjcAeW8LnPwhn3AiLLTDNhuAcmZ8o-XwBSXauwYtKAg5VB5Bf8vGj68Vjd_W6z9wNdYrv12pD7dPhihOT3x-_SWrtc0PdudtsOGXa6gujg4VYKBqgKeseG5Oy0JEYGNJyOoQ__zllqh_vNR/s640/farmakologi_2651+1.jpg" width="640" /></a></div><div class="content_1">1- Which of the following statements concering the treatment of acute myocardial infarction is correct?<br />1) A pansystolic murmur developing within the first 24 hours does not require further investigation.<br />2) Dipyridamole therapy reduces reinfarction within the first year.<br />3) Heparin is beneficial if given with streptokinase.<br />4) Prophylactic lignocaine given in the first 48 hours is effective in preventing ventricular fibrillation<br />5) Treatment with a dihydropyridine calcium antagonist is associated with increased cardiovascular mortality.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />2- A 30 year old male presented with a paranoid psychosis accompanied by visual hallucinations which resolved over the next three days. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?<br />1) Alcohol withdrawal.<br />2) Diazepam dependence.<br />3) Fluoxetine overdose.<br />4) Heroin withdrawal.<br />5) Smoking cannabis.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />3- Which ONE of the following oncerning Insulin is correct?<br />1) acts via a similar mechanism as steroid receptors<br />2) causes an increased glucose-protein transport on the endoplasmic reticulum<br />3) can be detected in the lymph<br />4) interacts with the nuclear membrane<br />5) is synthesised in the alpha cells of islets of Langerhans<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />4- In which of the following circumstances would the treatment of anaemia with erythropeitin still be expected to be effective?<br />1) Aluminium toxicity<br />2) Folate deficiency<br />3) Hyperkalaemia<br />4) Infection<br />5) Iron deficiency<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />5- A 70-year-old male is referred by his GP for management of recently diagnosed congestive heart failure. The patient has a history of poorly controlled hypertension. Over the last three months he has been aware of deteriorating shortness of breath, fatigue, and orthopnea. Over the last month he had been commenced on Digoxin (62.5 micrograms daily), Frusemide (80 mg daily), and amiloride 10 mg. On examination he has a pulse of 96 bpm regular, a blood pressure of 132/88 mmHg. His JVP was not raised, he had some scattered bibasal crackles on auscultation with a displaced apex beat in the anterior axillary line, 6th intercostal space. Auscultation of the heart revealed no murmurs and he had peripheral oedema to the mid tibia. Investigations showed:<br />electrolytes normal serum urea concentration 17 mmol/l (NR 2-8 mmol/l) creatinine 175 micromol/l (NR 55-110) Serum digoxin 0.7 ng/mL {therapeutic: 1.0-2.0}<br />One month previously his urea had been 11 mmol/l and creatinine 110 micromol/l. An ECG reveals left ventricular hypertrophy and Chest X-ray shows cardiomegaly and calcified aorta.<br />What is the most appropriate next step in management?<br />1) Add an ACE inhibitor to the current regimen<br />2) Add atenolol at a dose of 25mg daily<br />3) Increase digoxin to 0.25 mg daily<br />4) Increase frusemide to 80 mg twice daily<br />5) Maintain on current therapy.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />6- Which one of the following drugs works by inhibiting the tumour necrosis factor?<br />1) cyclosporin<br />2) infliximab<br />3) methotrexate<br />4) montelukast<br />5) sulphasalazine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />7- Which of the following is NOT associated with hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia?<br />1) Acute hypoadrenalism<br />2) Carbenoxolone therapy<br />3) Co-Amilofruse therapy<br />4) Congestive cardiac failure.<br />5) Type IV renal tubular acidosis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />8- A 70 year old male was receiving amiodarone 200 mg daily for intermittent atrial fibrillation. However, he was aware of tiredness and lethargy. He appeared clinically euthyroid with no palpable goitre. Investigations revealed:<br />Serum free T4 23pmol/L (9-26)<br />Serum total T3 0.8 nmol/L (0.9-2.8)<br />Serum TSH 8.2 mU/L (<5)<br />Which of the following statements would explain these results?<br />1) Abnormal thyroxine binding globulin<br />2) Amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism<br />3) 'sick euthyroid' syndrome<br />4) Spontaneous hypothyroidism<br />5) TSH secreting pituitary adenoma<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />9- There is presently no known effective treatment for a chronic disease. A new treatment is known to be effective in animal models and shows promise in short-term studies in patients. There is some theoretical concerns regarding possible hepato- and bone marrow toxicity although thus far, no toxicity have been observed in studies.<br />What is the most appropriate next step in the drug's development?<br />1) A case control study<br />2) No further studies should be done and drug development should be stopped<br />3) An open study<br />4) A randomised double blind placebo controlled study<br />5) A randomised single blind placebo controlled study<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />10- A 51-year-old female is referred by her GP over concerns about osteoporosis. She had a hysterectomy and oophorectomy because of uterine fibroids one year ago, after which she developed hot flushes that now have stopped. Her elderly mother recently fractured the neck of her femur and the patient is worried about the possibility that she too will fracture her hip later in life. She is otherwise well, is a non-smoker drinks about 5 units of alcohol weekly and has a healthy diet.<br />Examination reveals a fit thin female with a BMI of 18, her blood pressure is 122/88mmHg and breast examination is normal. Which of the following would you recommend for her?<br />1) Bisphosphonates<br />2) Calcitonin<br />3) Combined Oestrogen and progesterone therapy<br />4) Unopposed Oestrogen therapy<br />5) Vitamin D<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_2" style="display: none;">11- Which of the following may be responsible for an acute relapse of Systemic Lupus rythematosus in a 38 year old female?<br />1) hydralazine therapy<br />2) Pregnancy<br />3) Progesterone only contraceptive pill<br />4) Salmeterol therapy<br />5) Winter holiday in Lapland<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />12- Which of the following drugs is most likely to cause systemic lupuslike syndrome?<br />1) baclofen<br />2) isoniazid<br />3) methotrexate<br />4) procainamide<br />5) sulphasalazine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />13- Which of the following reactions is involved in the metabolism of paracetamol under normal conditions?<br />1) cytochrome p450 dependent oxidation<br />2) hydrolysis<br />3) conjugation to glucuronic acid<br />4) conjugation to glutathione<br />5) acetylation<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />14- An 85 year old woman presented with bilateral osteoarthritis of the knees. She had no history of previous gastrointestinal disease. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for her?<br />1) Celecoxib<br />2) Naproxen<br />3) Dihydrocodeine<br />4) Paracetamol<br />5) Topical diclofenac.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />15- A 24 year old man presented twelve hours after an overdose of dihydrocodeine 1.2 g and paracetamol 30 g. He had pinpoint pupils, a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 14 and a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg. Which one of the following is the most appropriate management?<br />1) 500ml of 10% glucose intravenously over four hours.<br />2) Intravenous Flumazenil.<br />3) Intravenous Naloxone.<br />4) Intravenous N-acetylcysteine.<br />5) Oral activated charcoal.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />16- A youth worker, aged 40, presents to Accident and Emergency with vomiting. On detailed questioning, he admits to having taken 36 paracetamol tablets 2 hours previously. He is vomiting profusely with a BP of 90/60. Which of the following measures would be most appropriate?<br />1) Paracetamol levels<br />2) oral methionone<br />3) IV N-acetyl cysteine<br />4) IV fluids<br />5) Coagulation screen<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />17- An 18-year-old woman is admitted after taking drugs at a night-club. Which of the following features suggest she had taken Ecstasy (MDMA)?<br />1) A pyrexia of 40oC<br />2) hypernatraemia<br />3) hypokalaemia<br />4) metabolic acidosis<br />5) respiratory depression<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />18- A 67 year old man presents with sudden onset atrial fibrillation (ventricular rate of 150/minute). His serum creatinine concentration was 250 umol/L (70-110). What is the main factor that determines the choice of loading dose of digoxin in this patient?<br />1) Absorption<br />2) Apparent volume of distribution<br />3) Lipid solubility<br />4) Plasma half-life<br />5) Renal clearance<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />19- A 30-year-old man presents with a history of transient loss of consciousness and palpitations. His ECG shows ventricular tachycardia.<br />Which of the following treatments should be avoided?<br />1) adenosine<br />2) amiodarone<br />3) DC cardioversion<br />4) flecainide<br />5) verapamil<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />20- A 58-year-old man has a history of obesity, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, low back pain and IHD. He presents with large, itchy wheals over the trunk and limbs and a sensation of tightness in the throat. Which one of the following drugs is the most likely to have triggered this skin eruption?<br />1) aspirin<br />2) GTN (nitrate) spray<br />3) omeprazole<br />4) paracetamol<br />5) simvastatin<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_3" style="display: none;">21- A 43 year old woman with atopic dermatitis (atopic eczema) presented with an acute generalized exacerbation of her disease. She was admitted to hospital but failed to improve with emollients, topical betamethasone-17-valerate and oral antihistamine. Which one of the following drugs is the most appropriate treatment?<br />1) Acitretin<br />2) Amoxycillin<br />3) Ciclosporin<br />4) Colchicine<br />5) Dapsone<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />22- A 30-year-old man presents to the Accident and Emergency Department with a history of drug overdose. He is known to be repeatedly admitted with similar episodes of self-harm. On this occaision he is drowsy and has prominent hypersalivation. Which of the following agents, found on his person, is the likely cause?<br />1) Chlormethiazole<br />2) Cocaine<br />3) Dothiepin<br />4) L-dopa<br />5) Solvent cannister<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />23- Which of the following is a contraindication to immunisation?<br />1) Infantile eczema requiring topical steroids.<br />2) Oral poliomyelitis vaccine to a child on oral steroids.<br />3) A history of prolonged jaundice.<br />4) A child with congenital adrenal hyperplasia on oral cortisone.<br />5) A child with cerebral palsy.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />24- In which of the following cases would the level of the second drug (or its effect) become elevated by adding the first?<br />1) Erythromycin : theophylline<br />2) Phenytoin : ethynoloestrodial<br />3) Ranitidine : cortiocosteroid<br />4) Rifampicin : warfarin<br />5) Valproate : phenobarbitone<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />25- Which of the following is true concerning oral hypoglycaemic agents?<br />1) Acarbose promotes insulin secretion in response to meals<br />2) Chlorpropamide induces liver enzymes<br />3) Glibenclamide is excreted unchanged by the kidney<br />4) Gliclazide inhibits gluconeogenesis<br />5) Metformin inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />26- A 44 year old male with Child's grade C cirrhosis presented with haematemesis. Which one of the following drugs, administered intravenously, would be the most appropriate, immediate, treatment?<br />1) Isosorbide dinitrate.<br />2) Omeprazole.<br />3) Propranolol<br />4) Somatostatin<br />5) Tranexamic acid.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />27- A 25 year old male homosexual is admitted with dyspnoea and weight loss of 2 months duration. He is diagnosed with Pneumocystis pneumoniae due to AIDS. Which of the following concerning Pneumocystis pneumonia is true?<br />1) May have an extra pulmonary presentation<br />2) is always associated with X-ray changes<br />3) is caused by a bacterium<br />4) elevated serum antibodies to P. carinii helpful diagnostically<br />5) is best treated with intravenous pentamidine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />28- A 68-year-old lady with mitral valve disease and atrial fibrillation is taking warfarin. Lately her INR has fallen and the dose of warfarin has had to be increased. Which of the following new treatments may account for this change?<br />1) Allopurinol<br />2) Amiodarone<br />3) Clarithromycin<br />4) Sertraline<br />5) St John's wort<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />29- You are an occupational health physician and have been asked by an anxious employee about contraindications to pertussis immunisation. Which of the following is a contraindication?<br />1) Eczema<br />2) Cow's milk protein intolerance.<br />3) Fever to 39.5°C following the first dose.<br />4) Redness of >2.5cm at the injection site after the first dose.<br />5) Hydrocephalus<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />30 - Which of the following is true regarding the action of Clopidogrel?<br />1) It inhibits cyclo-oxygenase<br />2) It is an ADP receptor antagonist<br />3) It is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor<br />4) It is a selective factor Xa inhibitor<br />5) It is Hydroxymethyl Coenzyme A inhibitor<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_4" style="display: none;">31- A 2 week old male child is brought to casualty by his concerned parents with diarrhoea and vomiting. He is the first child of a young couple. Examination reveals few features besides obvious dehydration. He is noted to have a penile length of 3.5cms. Which of the following is the most appropriate inital treatment for this patient?<br />1) Cow's milk allergy is the most likely diagnosis<br />2) gluten-enteropathy should be excluded<br />3) Requires urgent treatment with oral steroids<br />4) Requires urgent treatment with IV normal saline<br />5) Rota virus gastroenteritis is the most likely diagnosis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />32- A 75 year old man was admitted after been found collapsed in a garden shed surrounded by a number of empty containers. On clinical examination the patient had small pupils, a heart rate of 50 beats per minute, and was frothing at the mouth. What is the most likely diagnosis?<br />1) Creosote poisoning.<br />2) Glyphosate poisoning.<br />3) Organophosphorus poisoning.<br />4) Paraquat poisoning.<br />5) Pyrethroid poisoning.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />33- Which of the following is a true of cutaneous anthrax?<br />1) causes a black eschar which overlies pus<br />2) lesions are usually painful and tender<br />3) lesions are associated with marked oedema<br />4) Mortality is approximately 20% despite antibiotic therapy<br />5) Is very likely to occur in subjects exposed to anthrax spores<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />34- A young woman has acne and is taking oral medication. She develops polyarthritis and raised liver enzyme tests. Investigations show AST 95 413 ALT 170 bilirubin 16<br />antinuclear antibodies strongly positive at 1/640, negative at 1/20<br />Which of the following drugs is she most likely to have been prescribed?<br />1) erythromycin<br />2) isotretinoin<br />3) minocycline<br />4) oxytetracycline<br />5) trimethoprim<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />35- A 74-year-old man with a thirty year history of psoriasis presented with generalised erythroderma of 3 days duration. Examination reveals him to be shivering but otherwise is well. He was treated as an inpatient with emollients and attention to fluid replacement and temperature control but failed to improve after five days. What is the most appropriate next treatment?<br />1) Oral hydroxychloroquine<br />2) Oral methotrexate<br />3) Oral prednisolone<br />4) Topical coal tar<br />5) Topical dithranol<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />36- A previously fit, 30-year-old female presents with a four day history of intractable pruritus and urticaria. What is the most appropriate initial management?<br />1) Chlorpheniramine<br />2) Prednisolone<br />3) Ranitidine<br />4) Topical hydrocortisone<br />5) topical mepyramine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />37- Cannabinoids. Which is the incorrect statement?<br />1) Bioavailability after oral administration is about 16%<br />2) Inhibit eicosanoid synthesis<br />3) Lower intraocular pressure<br />4) Naloxone blocks the antinociceptive actions of cannabinoids<br />5) 9-tetrahydrocannabinol is an active constituent of the resin<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />38- With which of the following is hyperprolactinaemia associated?<br />1) Cabergoline therapy<br />2) Depression<br />3) Fluoxetine therapy<br />4) Hyperthyroidism<br />5) Sheehan's syndrome<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />39- A 35 year old woman with alcoholic cirrhosis is admitted with deteriorating encephalopathy and abdominal discomfort. An ascitic tap revealed a polymorphonuclear cell count of 350 cells per mm3. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy?<br />1) Intravenous amoxicillin<br />2) Intravenous cefotaxime<br />3) Intravenous metronidazole<br />4) Oral neomycin<br />5) Oral norfloxacin<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />40- Which of the following is a feature of Vancomycin-resistant enterococci?<br />1) cause resistant infective diarrhoea<br />2) produce an enzyme that inactivates vancomycin<br />3) may be found in healthy community volunteers not recently hospitalized<br />4) high dose ampicillin is the treatment of choice<br />5) are commonly vancomycin-dependent<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_5" style="display: none;">41- Which one of the following is a recognised treatment option in poisoning?<br />1) ethanol for isopropyl alcohol poisoning<br />2) glucagon for cocaine poisoning<br />3) methylene blue for cyanide poisoning<br />4) N-acetylcysteine in paraquat poisoning<br />5) pralidoxime in sarin (nerve gas) poisoning<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />42- A 78 year old female is referred by her GP with high blood pressure. Over the last three months her blood pressure is noted to be around 180/80 mmHg. She has a body mass index of 25.5kg/m2, is a nonsmoker. There are no features to suggest a secondary cause for her hypertension.<br />Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for her blood pressure?<br />1) Alpha-Blocker<br />2) Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (ACE) Inhibitor<br />3) Angiotensin Blocker<br />4) Beta-blocker<br />5) Calcium channel blocker<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />43- A 56 year old male with left ventricular systolic dysfunction was dyspnoeic on climbing stairs but not at rest. The patient was commenced on ramipril and frusemide. Which one of the following drugs would improve the patient's prognosis?<br />1) Amiodarone<br />2) Amlodipine<br />3) Bisoprolol<br />4) Digoxin<br />5) Nitrate therapy<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />44- A 70 year old female is admitted 12 hours after taking an overdose of aspirin. Investigations revealed: Serum sodium 138 mmol/L (137-144), Serum potassium 5.9 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Serum bicarbonate 14 mmol/L (20-28), Serum urea 18.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), Serum creatinine 238 umol/L (60-110), Serum salicylate 1120 mg/L (8 mmol/L). What is the most appropriate treatment of this patient?<br />1) Haemodialysis<br />2) Haemofiltration<br />3) Intravenous sodium bicarbonate.<br />4) Peritoneal dialysis.<br />5) Urine alkalinization.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />45- A 40-year-old man attending a routing screening has a blood pressure of 166/100 mmHg. Two weeks later his blood pressure was 150/90 mmHg. He does not smoke. He drinks 35 units alcohol / week. His body mass index (BMI) is 30 kg/m2 (20 - 25). What is the best management strategy?<br />1) amlodipine<br />2) atenolol<br />3) bendrofluazide<br />4) enalapril<br />5) lifestyle advice<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />46- In a chronic disease which has no known effective treatment, a new treatment is known to be effective in animal models and shows promise in short-term studies in patients. There are some theoretical concerns about toxicity involving liver and bone marrow although no cases have been observed in studies so far. What is the most appropriate next step in the drug's development?<br />1) case control study<br />2) No further studies should be done and drug development should be stopped<br />3) open study<br />4) randomised double blind placebo controlled study<br />5) randomised single blind placebo controlled study<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />47- Which of the following compounds has a vasodilating effect?<br />1) Antidiuretic hormone<br />2) Calcitonin<br />3) Endothelin<br />4) Renin<br />5) Somatostatin<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />48- In malignant hyperpyrexia:<br />1) A mortality rate of 20% may be expected<br />2) Elevation of serum creatine kinase and myoglobinuria is diagnostic<br />3) Muscle biopsy may be histologically normal<br />4) The only available specific treatment is sodium dantrolene, which has a neutral pH<br />5) The predisposing gene is thought to be on chromosome 9<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />49- Which of the following anti-microbials is associated with prolongation of the QT interval?<br />1) Co-amoxiclav<br />2) Gentamicin<br />3) Cefuroxime<br />4) Erythromycin<br />5) Isoniazid<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />50- A study has been designed to investigate whether a certain drug plus physiotherapy treatment is better than drug treatment alone in the management of rheumatoid arthritis. After randomizing the patients a small proportion of the drug plus physiotherapy group decide to drop out of the study or omit some treatment sessions specified in the research protocol. What is the correct way of analysing the subsequent data?<br />1) Assume the patients have withdrawn their consent<br />2) Exclude these patients from all analysis<br />3) Extend the trial recruitment to make up the numbers<br />4) Include these patient outcomes in the drug plus physiotherapy group<br />5) Interview the patients and report their group separately<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_6" style="display: none;">51- Useful therapy for improving fertility in Polycystic ovarian syndrome include<br />1) Cyproterone acetate<br />2) Ethinyl oestradiol<br />3) Metformin<br />4) Glibenclamide<br />5) Spironolactone<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />52- A 45 year old male type 1 diabetic with a number of complex diabetic gastrointestinal complications is noted to have a PR interval of 0.18s, a QRS duration of 0.1s and a QT interval of 0.48s on routine ECG. Which of the following drugs may be responsible?<br />1) Cisapride<br />2) Octreotide<br />3) Co-trimoxazole<br />4) Domperidone<br />5) Cimetidine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />53- Which of the following is true of radioactive iodine (131I) therapy?<br />1) Causes hypothyroidism in 90% of treated patients within 3 months<br />2) Causes a deterioration in ophthalmopathy in patients with Graves disease<br />3) Is associated with a subsequently increased risk of infertility<br />4) Is associated with an increased risk of thyroid lymphoma<br />5) Is the preferred treatment in amiodarone induced thyrotoxicosis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />54- Erythropoietin therapy causes<br />1) Benign intracranial hypertension<br />2) Myositis<br />3) Hypotension<br />4) Seizures<br />5) Osteoporosis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />55- Which of the following is a feature of Vancomycin-resistant enterococci?<br />1) cause resistant infective diarrhoea<br />2) produce an enzyme that inactivates vancomycin<br />3) may be found in healthy community volunteers not recently hospitalized<br />4) high dose ampicillin is the treatment of choice<br />5) are commonly vancomycin-dependent<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />56- Oral therapy with which of the following may cause galactorrhoea?<br />1) Bromocriptine<br />2) Cabergoline<br />3) Spironolactone<br />4) Cimetidine<br />5) Domperidone<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />57- Which of the following is currently recommended as the drug of choice in treating refractory ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tacchycardia?<br />1) Adenosine<br />2) Amiodarone<br />3) Bretyllium<br />4) Lignocaine<br />5) Magnesium<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />58- A 55 year old man presents with gynaecomastia while receiving treatment for Heart failure.<br />Which of the following drugs is most likely to be the cause of his gynaecomastia?<br />1) Amiloride<br />2) Carvedilol<br />3) Frusemide<br />4) Omeprazole<br />5) Ramipril<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />59- An elderly man with a history of asthma, congestive heart failure, and peptic ulcer disease is admitted with bronchospasm and rapid atrial fibrillation. He recieves frequent nebulised salbutamol and IV digoxin loading, his regular medications are continued. 24 hours after admission his serum potassium is noted to be 2.8 mmol/l. Which of his medications is most likely to have caused this abnormality.<br />1) Digoxin<br />2) ACE inhibitor<br />3) Salbutamol<br />4) Ranitidine<br />5) Spironolactone<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />60- A 24-year-old man presents with a headache that has been present for nine months. He has headache almost every day, mainly frontal, sometimes with nausea. Current medication includes paracetamol, brufen and codeine with only transient relief of symptoms. He has a history of depression. Examination was normal.<br />What is the most likely diagnosis?<br />1) analgesic misuse headache<br />2) cluster headache<br />3) frontal brain tumour<br />4) headache due to depression<br />5) migraine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_7" style="display: none;">61- A 68 year old woman was admitted to hospital with evidence of biventricular cardiac failure. On examination her pulse was 100 beats per minute (sinus rhythm), and her blood pressure was 140/60 mmHg. She had haemorrhages in both fundi. Her condition improved after<br />intravenous diuretics.<br />Investigations revealed:<br />haemoglobin 5.6 g/dl (11.5 – 16.5)<br />haematocrit 0.19 (0.36 – 0.47)<br />MCV 118 fl (80 – 96)<br />MCH 33.0 pg (28 – 32)<br />WCC 3.4 x 109/L (4 – 11)<br />platelet count 95 x 109/L (150 – 400)<br />What is the next most appropriate step in management?<br />1) blood transfusion<br />2) bone marrow aspiration<br />3) intramuscular vitamin B12 alone<br />4) intramuscular vitamin B12 and oral folic acid together<br />5) oral folic acid alone<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />62- With regard to poisoning / overdose:<br />1) Phenobarbitone causes a metabolic acidosis<br />2) Ethylene glycol causes a metabolic alkalosis and renal failure<br />3) Aspirin causes acidosis due to hypoventilation<br />4) Methanol causes a metabolic acidosis with an increased anion gap<br />5) Chlormethiazole causes hyperthermia and hypertension<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />63- Which of the following is NOT associated with hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia?<br />1) Acute hypoadrenalism<br />2) Carbenoxolone therapy<br />3) Co-Amilofruse therapy<br />4) Congestive cardiac failure.<br />5) Type IV renal tubular acidosis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />64- A 55-year-old woman was found to have ++ glycosuria and had a maternal history of Type II diabetes mellitus. She was a smoker of 20 cigarettes per day. Examination reveals no specific abnormalities apart from a BMI of 30. Blood pressure was 132/88 mmHg.<br />Investigations reveal:<br />serum creatinine 80 µmol/L (60 – 110)<br />plasma glucose (fasting) 11.3 mmol/L (3.0 – 6.0)<br />total serum cholesterol 5.5 mmol/L (<5.2)<br />HDL cholesterol 1.4 mmol/L (>1.55)<br />What is most likely to improve her life expectancy?<br />1) Metformin 500 mg bd<br />2) Ramipril 10 mg daily<br />3) Simvastatin 10 mg daily<br />4) Stopping smoking<br />5) Weight loss to achieve a BMI of 25<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />65- Baclofen<br />1) acts directly on skeletal muscle<br />2) causes rhabdomyolysis<br />3) reduces cerebral but not spinal spasticity<br />4) cause hallucinations when withdrawn<br />5) reduce Ca2+ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />66- Which one of the following is correct regarding long-acting beta-2 agonists?<br />1) Can be used to prevent activity-induced symptoms without anti-inflammatory therapy.<br />2) Become less effective over time (tolerance).<br />3) Are beneficial in acute viral croup.<br />4) Protect against allergen challenge for up to 48 hours.<br />5) Should not be used in association with erythromycin.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />67- A 50-year-old lady suffers with migraine. She smokes 20 cigarettes a day. She has found that paracetamol 1 g was not always effective in relieving her pain. Which of the following factors is the most likely to account for this problem?<br />1) altered volume of distribution<br />2) delayed gastric emptying<br />3) first pass metabolism<br />4) hepatic enzyme induction<br />5) reduced gut blood flow<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />68- In the treatment of osteoporosis, which of the following best describe the drug Raloxifene?<br />1) A Bisphosphonate<br />2) A Calcium Receptor Modulator<br />3) An Estrogen<br />4) A PTH receptor agonist<br />5) A Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />69- In which of the following have randomised controlled trials shown that long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) reduces mortality?<br />1) Asthma<br />2) Cor pulmonale due to chronic airflow obstruction<br />3) Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis<br />4) Cystic fibrosis<br />5) Pulmonary sarcoidosis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />70- A firm 2 to 3 cm mass is palpable in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast of a 52-year-old woman. There are no palpable axillary lymph nodes. A lumpectomy with axillary node dissection is performed and the breast lesion is found to have positive immunohistochemical staining for HER2/neu (c-erb B2). Staining for oestrogen and progesterone receptors is negative. Which of the following additional treatment options is most appropriate, based upon these findings?<br />1) Radical mastectomy<br />2) St John's wort<br />3) Tamoxifen<br />4) Trastuzumab<br />5) Vancomycin<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_8" style="display: none;">71- Which of the following is the oral hypoglycaemic agent Rosiglitazone?<br />1) A Perixisome Proliferator Activating Receptor (PPAR)-alpha agonist<br />2) A Peroxisome Proliferator Activating Receptor (PPAR)-gamma agonist<br />3) A Sulphonylurea<br />4) A Biguanide<br />5) An alpha-Glucosidase inhibitor<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />72- Which of the following is true concerning oral hypoglycaemic agents?<br />1) Acarbose promotes insulin secretion in response to meals<br />2) Chlorpropamide induces liver enzymes<br />3) Glibenclamide is excreted unchanged by the kidney<br />4) Gliclazide inhibits gluconeogenesis<br />5) Metformin inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />73- The following are the causes of drug induced hepatitis except:<br />1) Isoniazid<br />2) Amiodarone<br />3) Pyrazinamide<br />4) Ethambutol<br />5) Methyldopa<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />74- A 21 year old female with epilepsy is well controlled on sodium valproate 600mg bd and had been taking oral contraceptives for three years. She presented to her general practitioner 12 weeks pregnant. Which of the following is correct?<br />1) An alternative anticonvulsant should be used in place of sodium valproate<br />2) Interaction of sodium valproate with the oral contraceptive increased the risk of pregnancy<br />3) The dose of sodium valproate should be increased<br />4) There is an increased risk of a neural tube defect in her fetus<br />5) She is at increased risk of anaemia in pregnancy<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />75- Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs may be used in the treatment of long QT syndrome?<br />1) Amiodarone<br />2) Atenolol<br />3) Flecainide<br />4) Propofanone<br />5) Sotalol<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />76- A new drug is being studied to find the most appropriate dose in a dose response study. Small doses of the drug lead to a linear increase in serum drug concentration. At higher doses there is an exponential rise in serum drug concentration. Which of the following best describes the pharmacokinetic properties of this new drug?<br />1) first order kinetics<br />2) first pass effect<br />3) long plasma half life<br />4) saturation kinetics<br />5) zero order kinetics<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />77- Which of the following concerning the conjugation of bilirubin is correct?<br />1) is catalysed by a glucuronyl transferase<br />2) occurs in the Kupfer cells of the liver<br />3) is increased by valproate<br />4) is inhibited by rifampicin<br />5) is impaired in Dubin-Johnson syndrome<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />78-Which of the following doses of prednisolone is equivalent in its glucocorticoid potency to 20mg of hydrocortisone.<br />1) 2 mg<br />2) 5 mg<br />3) 10 mg<br />4) 15 mg<br />5) 20 mg<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />79- A 33 year old epileptic female presents with visual problems. Examination reveals a constriction of visual fields to confrontation. Which of the following may be responsible for her visual deterioration?<br />1) Vigabatrin<br />2) Lamotrigine<br />3) Gabapentin<br />4) Phenytoin<br />5) Sodium Valproate<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />80- A 2 week old male child is brought to casualty by his concerned parents with diarrhoea and vomiting. He is the first child of a young couple. Examination reveals few features besides obvious dehydration. He is noted to have a penile length of 3.5cms. Which of the following is the most appropriate inital treatment for this patient?<br />1) Cow's milk allergy is the most likely diagnosis<br />2) gluten-enteropathy should be excluded<br />3) Requires urgent treatment with oral steroids<br />4) Requires urgent treatment with IV normal saline<br />5) Rota virus gastroenteritis is the most likely diagnosis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_9" style="display: none;">81- Which of the following statements concering the treatment of acute myocardial infarction is correct?<br />1) A pansystolic murmur developing within the first 24 hours does not require further investigation.<br />2) Dipyridamole therapy reduces reinfarction within the first year.<br />3) Heparin is beneficial if given with streptokinase.<br />4) Prophylactic lignocaine given in the first 48 hours is effective in preventing ventricular fibrillation<br />5) Treatment with a dihydropyridine calcium antagonist is associated with increased cardiovascular mortality.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />82- A 67 year old man presents with sudden onset atrial fibrillation (ventricular rate of 150/minute). His serum creatinine concentration was 250 umol/L (70-110). What is the main factor that determines the choice of loading dose of digoxin in this patient?<br />1) Absorption<br />2) Apparent volume of distribution<br />3) Lipid solubility<br />4) Plasma half-life<br />5) Renal clearance<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />83- Folic acid metabolism can be affected by<br />1) tetracycline<br />2) pyrimethamine<br />3) vitamin B12<br />4) penicillin<br />5) brufen<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />84- Which ONE statement is true regarding the treatment of iron deficiency anaemia:<br />1) iron is absorbed in the distal jejunum<br />2) absorption of iron is increased by ascorbic acid<br />3) sustained release iron is a useful way of giving larger doses<br />4) ferrous sulphate 200mg has less elemental iron than the same dose of ferrous gluconate<br />5) parenteral iron is indicated when the anaemia responds slowly to oral iron<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />85- Which of the following concerning Pityriasis rosea is correct?<br />1) It is due to a fungal infection<br />2) It is characterised by flat scaly patches<br />3) It is frequently associated with oro-genital itching<br />4) May be preceded by intense itching<br />5) Tends to recur after apparent cure<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />86- A 76-year-old with a recent history of cerebral haemorrhage is admitted with a cough, worsening breathlessness and right pleuritic chest pain. He is also mildly pyrexial. His ventilation-perfusion scan reveals several areas of ventilation/perfusion mismatches. What is the most appropriate line of management?<br />1) aspirin therapy<br />2) antibiotics<br />3) inferior vena cava filter<br />4) low molecular weight heparin treatment<br />5) warfarin treatment<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />87- A 70 year old male was receiving amiodarone 200 mg daily for intermittent atrial fibrillation. However, he was aware of tiredness and lethargy. He appeared clinically euthyroid with no palpable goitre.<br />Investigations revealed:<br />Serum free T4 23pmol/L (9-26)<br />Serum total T3 0.8 nmol/L (0.9-2.8)<br />Serum TSH 8.2 mU/L (<5)<br />Which of the following statements would explain these results?<br />1) Abnormal thyroxine binding globulin<br />2) Amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism<br />3) 'sick euthyroid' syndrome<br />4) Spontaneous hypothyroidism<br />5) TSH secreting pituitary adenoma<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />88- 56 year old male with left ventricular systolic dysfunction was dyspnoeic on climbing stairs but not at rest. The patient was commenced on ramipril and frusemide. Which one of the following drugs would improve the patient's prognosis?<br />1) Amiodarone<br />2) Amlodipine<br />3) Bisoprolol<br />4) Digoxin<br />5) Nitrate therapy<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />89- A 60-year-old man with a past history of controlled hypertension presents with acute onset weakness of his left arm, that resolved over 12 hours. He had suffered two similar episodes over the last three months. Examination reveals a blood pressure of 132/82 mmHg and he is in atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 85 per minute. CT brain scan is normal.<br />What is the most appropriate management?<br />1) amiodarone<br />2) aspirin<br />3) digoxin<br />4) dipyridamole<br />5) warfarin<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />90- A 45 year old female presents with a 6 month history of exertional dyspnoea and is diagnosed with pulmonary fibrosis. Over the last one year she has received a variety of medications. Which of the following drugs could be responsible?<br />1) Dexamethasone<br />2) Ibuprofen<br />3) nalidixic acid<br />4) penicillamine<br />5) sulphasalazine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_10" style="display: none;">91- Which statement is true regarding Gabapentin?<br />1) is a potent hepatic enzyme inducer<br />2) side effects typically include visual field defects with long-term use<br />3) therapy is best monitored through measuring plasma concentrations<br />4) is of particular value as monotherapy in absence attacks (petit mal)<br />5) requires dose adjustment in renal disease<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />92- Which of the following relate to Dopa-decarboxylase inhibitors?<br />1) enhance the effect of levodopa on the substantia nigra<br />2) reduce the extracerebral complications of L-dopa therapy<br />3) have anticholinergic activity<br />4) should not be given in combination with dopamine agonists<br />5) prevent L-dopa associated dyskinesias<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />93- The antibiotic combination Quinipristin and Dalfopristin are<br />1) effective against resistant mycobacterium TB.<br />2) indicated in subjects with chronic renal impairment.<br />3) particularly effective in the treatment of pseudomonas infection in Cystic fibrosis.<br />4) administered orally.<br />5) Effective against multi-resistant Staph Aureus<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />94- A 60-year-old Chinese man has been started on quinine for leg cramps by his General Practitioner. He presents, a week later, with 5 days of darkened urine and 2 days of increasing breathlessness, back pain and fatigue. Investigations show a haemoglobin of 7.0 g/dl and raised reticulocyte count. Which of the following best explain this drug reaction?<br />1) autoimmune haemolytic anaemia<br />2) glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency<br />3) hereditary spherocytosis<br />4) pyruvate kinase deficiency<br />5) sickle cell disease<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />95- An 18-year-old woman is admitted after taking drugs at a night-club. Which of the following features suggest she had taken Ecstasy (MDMA)?<br />1) A pyrexia of 40°C<br />2) hypernatraemia<br />3) hypokalaemia<br />4) metabolic acidosis<br />5) respiratory depression<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />96- A 65-year-old was advised to start oral digoxin at a dose of 250 µg daily. His physician explained that the full effect of this treatment would not be apparent for at least a week. Which one of the following pharmacokinetic variables did the physician use to give this explanation?<br />1) bioavailablity<br />2) half-life<br />3) plasma protein binding<br />4) renal clearance<br />5) volume of distribution<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />97- A 70-year-old male is referred by his GP for management of recently diagnosed congestive heart failure. The patient has a history of poorly controlled hypertension. Over the last three months he has been aware of deteriorating shortness of breath, fatigue, and orthopnea. Over the last month he had been commenced on Digoxin (62.5 micrograms daily), Frusemide (80 mg daily), and amiloride 10 mg. On examination he has a pulse of 96 bpm regular, a blood pressure of 132/88 mmHg. His JVP was not raised, he had some scattered bibasal crackles on auscultation with a displaced apex beat in the anterior axillary line, 6th intercostal space. Auscultation of the heart revealed no murmurs and he had peripheral oedema to the mid tibia.<br />Investigations showed:<br />electrolytes normal<br />serum urea concentration 17 mmol/l (NR 2-8 mmol/l)<br />creatinine 175 micromol/l (NR 55-110)<br />Serum digoxin 0.7 ng/mL {therapeutic: 1.0-2.0}<br />One month previously his urea had been 11 mmol/l and creatinine 110 micromol/l. An ECG reveals left ventricular hypertrophy and Chest X-ray shows cardiomegaly and calcified aorta.<br />What is the most appropriate next step in management?<br />1) Add an ACE inhibitor to the current regimen<br />2) Add atenolol at a dose of 25mg daily<br />3) Increase digoxin to 0.25 mg daily<br />4) Increase frusemide to 80 mg twice daily<br />5) Maintain on current therapy.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />98- A 19 year old female presents with acute breathlessness. She has had asthma for approximately 3 years and recently commenced new therapy. Which agent may be responsible for this exacerbation?<br />1) Salmeterol<br />2) Theophylline<br />3) Beclomethasone<br />4) Ipratropium bromide<br />5) Monteleukast<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />99- The anticonvulsant Levetiracetecam<br />1) Is used as monotherapy for the treatment of generalised convulsions<br />2) Acts via the GABA receptor<br />3) Is associated with induction of hepatic cytochrome p450 enzymes<br />4) Is well absorbed via the oral route<br />5) Is associated with increased plasma concentrations of sodium valproate<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />100- A 40-year-old man attending a routing screening has a blood pressure of 166/100 mmHg. Two weeks later his blood pressure was 150/90 mmHg. He does not smoke. He drinks 35 units alcohol / week.<br />His body mass index (BMI) is 30 kg/m2 (20 - 25). What is the best management strategy?<br />1) amlodipine<br />2) atenolol<br />3) bendrofluazide<br />4) enalapril<br />5) lifestyle advice<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /></div> <b>Go to next Page: <span style="color: #3d85c6;"></span></b><br /><div class="post-pagination"><b><span style="color: #3d85c6;"><a class="button_1" href="#">Part 1</a><a class="button_2" href="#">Part 2</a><a class="button_3" href="#">Part 3</a><a class="button_4" href="#">Part 4</a><a class="button_5" href="#">Part 5</a><a class="button_6" href="#">Part 6</a><a class="button_7" href="#">Part 7</a><a class="button_8" href="#">Part 8</a><a class="button_9" href="#">Part 9</a><a class="button_10" href="#">Part 10</a></span></b></div>

mcq medical Pharmacology staff nurse staffnursemcq MCQs on Pharmacology for Staff Nurse and Medical Exams

1- Which of the following statements concering the treatment of acute myocardial infarction is correct? 1) A pansystolic murmur developing w...

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[Objective] MCQ's on Pharmacology for Staff Nurses and Medical Exams

<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on"><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEiC7Iz8xJXlUryAfq4L7_BJX7Dce1XUdqRp3Z6nfvYCflRPnR-bO2UBbcq1fMxaM2gMWaiw4BJw-EIlqJmOEqLNxUycaQd9r3GH_G0BzR47R0OgIO9Zmxw2NFPZuF7uREn56eLcfDUTFQWe/s1600/Pharmacology+1.jpg" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img alt="mcq on pharmacology" border="0" height="238" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEiC7Iz8xJXlUryAfq4L7_BJX7Dce1XUdqRp3Z6nfvYCflRPnR-bO2UBbcq1fMxaM2gMWaiw4BJw-EIlqJmOEqLNxUycaQd9r3GH_G0BzR47R0OgIO9Zmxw2NFPZuF7uREn56eLcfDUTFQWe/s640/Pharmacology+1.jpg" title="" width="640" /></a></div><br /></div><div class="content_1">1. All of the following are general mechanisms of drug permeation Except<br />(a) Aqueous diffusion<br />(b) Aqueous hydrolysis<br />(c) Lipid diffusion<br />(d) Pinocytosis or endocytosis<br />(e) Special carrier transport<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />2. If the plasma concentration of a drug declines with “first-order kinetics”, this means that<br />(a) There is only one metabolic path for drug disposition<br />(b) The half-life is the same regardless of the plasma concentration<br />(c) The drug is largely metabolized in the liver after oral administration and has low bioavailability elimination<br />(d) The rate of climination is proportionate to the rate of administration at all times<br />(e) The drug is not distributed outside the vascular system<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />3. Regarding termination of drug action<br />(a) Drug must be exerted from the body to terminate their action<br />(b) Metabolism of drugs always increases their water solubility<br />(c) Metabolism of drugs always abolishes their pharmacologic activity<br />(d) Hepatic metabolism and renal excretion are the two most important mechanisms involved<br />(e) Distribution of a drug out of the bloodstream terminates the drug’s effect<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />4. Distribution of drugs to specific tissues<br />(a) Is independent of blood flow to the organ<br />(b) Is independent of the solubility of the drug in that tissue<br />(c) Depends on the unbound drug concentration gradient between blood and tissue<br />(d) Is increased for drugs that are strongly bound to plasma proteins<br />(e) Has no effect on the half-life of the drug<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />5. A physical process by which a weak acid becomes less water-soluble and more lipid-soluble at low pH is<br />(a) Distribution<br />(b) Elimination<br />(c) First-pass effect<br />(d) Permeation<br />(e) Protonation<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : E ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />6. Dose-response curves are used for drug evaluation in the animal laboratory and in the clinic, Quantal dose-response curves are often<br />(a) Used for determining the therapeutic index of a drug<br />(b) Used for determining the maximal efficacy of a drug<br />(c) Invalid in the presence of inhibitors of the drug being studied<br />(d) Obtained from the study of intact subject but not from isolated tissue preparations<br />(e) Used to determine the statistical variation (standard deviation) of the maximal response to the drug.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />7. The following are excreted faster in basic urine<br />(a) Weak acids<br />(b) Strong acids<br />(c) Weak Bases<br />(d) None of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />8. Which of the following statements about spare receptors is most correct ?<br />(a) Spare receptors, in the absence of drug, are sequestered in the cytoplasm<br />(b) Spare receptors will be detected if the intracellular effect of drug-receptor interaction lasts longer than the drug-receptor interaction itself<br />(c) Spare receptors influence the maximal efficacy of the drug-receptor system<br />(d) Spare receptors activate the effector machinery of the cell without the need for a drug<br />(e) Spare receptors may be detected by the finding that the EC50 is greater than the Kd for the agonist<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />9. Which of the following terms best describes an antagonist that interacts directly with the agonist and not at all or only incidentally, with the receptor ?<br />(a) Pharmacological antagonist<br />(b) Partial agonist<br />(c) Physiological antagonist<br />(d) Chemical antagonist<br />(e) Noncompetitive antagonist<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />10. Which of the following terms best describes a drug that blocks the action of epinephrine at its receptors by occupying those receptors without activating them ?<br />(a) Pharmacological antagonist<br />(b) Partial agonist<br />(c) Physiological antagonist<br />(d) Chemical antagonist<br />(e) Noncompetitive antagonist<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />11. Which of the following provides information about the variation in sensitivity of the drug within the population studied ?<br />(a) Maximal efficacy<br />(b) Therapeutic index<br />(c) Drug potency<br />(d) Grade dose-response curve<br />(e) Quantal dose-response curve<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : E ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />12. Which of the following most accurately describes the transmembrane signaling process involved in steroid hormone action ?<br />(a) Action on a membrane spanning tyrosine kinase<br />(b) Activation of a G protein which activates or inhibits adenyl cyclase<br />(c) Diffusion into the cytoplasm and binding to an intracellular receptor<br />(d) Diffusion of “STAT” molecules across the membrane<br />(e) Opening of transmembrane ion channels<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />13. Which of the following is a phase II drugmetabolizing reaction ?<br />(a) Acetylation<br />(b) Deamination<br />(c) Hydrolysis<br />(d) Oxidation<br />(e) Reduction<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />14. Which of the following drugs may inhibit the hepatic microsomal P450 responsible for warfarin metabolism<br />(a) Cimetidine<br />(b) Ethanol<br />(c) Phenobarbital<br />(d) Procainamide<br />(e) Rifampin<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />15. With regard to clinical trials of new drugs, which of the following is most correct ?<br />(a) Phase I involves the study of a small number of normal volunteers by highly trained clinical pharmacologists<br />(b) Phase II involves the use of the new drug in a large number of patients (100-5000) who have the disease to be treated<br />(c) Phase III involves the determination of the drug’s therapeutic index by the cautious induction of toxicity<br />(d) Chemical antagonist<br />(e) Phase II requires the use of a positive control (a known effective drug) and a placebo<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_2" style="display: none;">16. Animal testing of potential new therapeutic agents<br />(a) Extends over a time period of at least 3 years in order to discover late toxicities<br />(b) Requires the use of at least two primate species, eg. Monkey and baboon<br />(c) Requires the submission of histopathologic slides and specimens to the FDA for government evaluation<br />(d) Has good predictability for drug allergy-type reactions<br />(e) May be abbreviated in the case of some very toxic agents used in cancer<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />17. The “dominant lethal” test involves the treatment of a male adult animal with a chemical before mating; the pregnant female is later examined for fetal death and abnormalities. The dominant lethal test therefore is a test of<br />(a) Teratogenicity<br />(b) Mutagenicity<br />(c) Carcinogenicity<br />(d) All of the above<br />(e) None of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />18. The Ames test is a method for detecting<br />(a) Carcinogenesis in rodents<br />(b) Carcinogenesis in primates<br />(c) Teratogenesis in any mammalian species<br />(d) Teratogenesis in primates<br />(e) Mutagenesis in bacteria<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : E ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />19. “Nicotinic” sites include all of the following except<br />(a) Bronchial smooth muscle<br />(b) Adrenal medullary cells<br />(c) Parasympathetic ganglia<br />(d) Skeletal muscle<br />(e) Sympathetic ganglia<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />20. A good example of chemical antagonism<br />(a) Heparin & Protamine<br />(b) Protamine & Zinc<br />(c) Heparin & Prothrombin<br />(d) All the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />21. Which of the following agents is a prodrug that is much less toxic in mammals than in insects ?<br />(a) Acetylcholine<br />(b) Bethanechol<br />(c) Physostigmine<br />(d) Pilocarpine<br />(e) Neostigmine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />22. Phenylephrine causes<br />(a) Constriction of vessels in the nasal mucosa<br />(b) Increased gastric secretion and motility<br />(c) Increased skin temperature<br />(d) Miosis<br />(e) All of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />23. Pretreatment with propranolol will block which one of the following ?<br />(a) Methacholine-induced tachycardia<br />(b) Nicotine-induced hypertension<br />(c) Norepinephrine-induced bradycardia<br />(d) Phenylephrine-induced mydriasis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />24. Most drug receptors are<br />(a) Small molecules with a molecular weight between 100 and 1000<br />(b) Lipids arranged in a bilayer configuration<br />(c) Proteins located on cell membranes or in the cytosol<br />(d) DNA molecules<br />(e) RNA molecules<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />25. With regard to distribution of a drug from the blood into tissues<br />(a) Blood flow to the tissue is an important determinant<br />(b) Solubility of the drug in the tissue is an important determinant<br />(c) Concentration of the drug in the blood is an important determinant<br />(d) Size (volume) of the tissue is an important determinant<br />(e) All of the above are important determinants<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : E ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />26. The pH value is calculated mathematically as the<br />(a) Log of the hydroxyl ion (OH–) concentration<br />(b) Negative log of the OH– concentration<br />(c) Log of the hydrogen ion (H+) concentration<br />(d) Negative log of the H+ concentration<br />(e) Ratio of H+/OH– concentration<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />27. Which property is classified as colligative?<br />(a) Solubility of a solute<br />(b) Osmotic pressure<br />(c) Hydrogen ion (H+) concentration<br />(d) Dissociation of a solute<br />(e) Miscibility of the liquids<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />28. The colligative properties of a solution are related to the<br />(a) pH of the solution<br />(b) Number of ions in the solution<br />(c) Total number of solute particles in the solution<br />(d) Number of unionized molecules in the solution<br />(e) pKa of the solution<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />29. The pH of a buffer system can be calculated with the<br />(a) Noyes – Whitney equation<br />(b) Henderson – Hasselbalch equation<br />(c) Michaelis – Menten equation<br />(d) Yong equation<br />(e) Stokes equation<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />30. Which mechanism is most often responsible for chemical degradation?<br />(a) Racemization<br />(b) Photolysis<br />(c) Hydrolysis<br />(d) Decarboxylation<br />(e) Oxidation<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_3" style="display: none;">31. Which equation is used to predict the stability of a drug product at room temperature from experiments at accelerated temperature?<br />(a) The stokes equation<br />(b) The Yong equation<br />(c) The Arrhenius equation<br />(d) The Michaelis – Menten equation<br />(e) The Hixson – Crowell equation<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />32. Based on the relation between the degree of ionization and the solubility of a weak acid, the drug aspirin (pKa 3.49) will be most soluble at<br />(a) pH 1.0<br />(b) pH 2.0<br />(c) pH 3.0<br />(d) pH 4.0<br />(e) pH 6.0<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : E ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />33. The particle size of the dispersed solid in a suspension is usually greater than<br />(a) 0.5 µm<br />(b) 0.4 µm<br />(c) 0.3 µm<br />(d) 0.2 µm<br />(e) 0.1 µm<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />34. In the extemporaneous preparation of a suspension, levigation is used to<br />(a) Reduce the zeta potential<br />(b) Avoid bacterial growth<br />(c) Reduce particle size<br />(d) Enhance viscosity<br />(e) Reduce viscosity<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />35. Active transport differs from facilitated transport in following ways, except<br />(a) Carrier is involved<br />(b) It is against concentration gradient<br />(c) Energy is required<br />(d) All of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />36. Vanishing cream is an ointment that may be classified as<br />(a) A water –soluble base<br />(b) An oleaginous base<br />(c) An absorption base<br />(d) An emulsion base<br />(e) An oleic base<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />37. Rectal suppositories intended for adult use usually weigh approximately<br />(a) 1g<br />(b) 2g<br />(c) 3g<br />(d) 4g<br />(e) 5g<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />38. In the fusion method of making cocoa butter suppositories,which substance is most likely to be used to lubricate the mold?<br />(a) Mineral oil<br />(b) Propylene glycol<br />(c) Cetyl alcohol<br />(d) Stearic acid<br />(e) Magnesium silicate<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />39. A very fine powdered chemical is defined as one that<br />(a) Completely passes through a # 80 sieve<br />(b) Completely passes through a # 120 sieve<br />(c) Completely passes through a # 20 sieve<br />(d) Passes through a # 60 sieve and not more than 40% through a # 100 sieve<br />(e) Passes through a # 40 sieve and not more than 60% through a # 60 sieve<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />40. Which technique is typically used to mill camphor?<br />(a) Trituration<br />(b) Levigation<br />(c) Pulverization and intervention<br />(d) Geometric dilution<br />(e) Attrition<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />41. Which type of paper best protects a divided hygroscopic powder?<br />(a) Waxed paper<br />(b) Glassine<br />(c) White bond<br />(d) Blue bond<br />(e) Vegetable parchment<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />42. Which capsule size has the smallest capacity?<br />(a) 5<br />(b) 4<br />(c) 1<br />(d) 0<br />(e) 000<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />43. The shells of soft gelatin capsules may be made elastic or plastic–like by the addition of<br />(a) Sorbitol<br />(b) Povidone<br />(c) Polyethylene glycol<br />(d) Lactose<br />(e) pKa of the solution<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />44. Nonionic surface-active agents used as synthetic emulsifiers include<br />(a) Tragacanth<br />(b) Sodium lauryl sulphate<br />(c) Sorbitan esters(spans)<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />45. A ceramic mortar may be preferable to a glass mortar when<br />(a) A volatile oil is added to a powder mixture<br />(b) Colored substances (dyes) are mixed into a powder<br />(c) Comminution is desired in addition to mixing<br />(d) None of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_4" style="display: none;">46. Divided powders may be dispensed in<br />(a) Individual-dose packets<br />(b) A bulk container<br />(c) A perforated, sifter –type container<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />47. Agents that may be used to coat enteric coated tablets include<br />(a) Hydroxypropyl methyl cellulose<br />(b) Carboxymethyl cellulose<br />(c) Cellulose acetate phthalate<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />51. The route of drug administration that gives the most rapid onset of the pharmacological effect is<br />(a) Intramuscular injection<br />(b) Intravenous injection<br />(c) Intradermal injection<br />(d) Peroral administration<br />(e) Subcutaneous injection<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />52. Acidic drugs mainly bind to plasma<br />(a) Albumin<br />(b) á1 – acid glycoprotein<br />(c) Both (a) and (b)<br />(d) None of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />53. After peroral administration, drugs generally are absorbed best from the<br />(a) Buccal cavity<br />(b) Stomach<br />(c) Duodenum<br />(d) Ileum<br />(e) Rectum<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />54. The passage of drug molecules from a region of high drug concentration to a region of low drug concentration is known as<br />(a) Active transport<br />(b) Bioavailability<br />(c) Biopharmaceutics<br />(d) Simple diffusion<br />(e) Pinocytosis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />55. What equation describes the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet?<br />(a) Fick’s law<br />(b) Henderson – Hasselbach equation<br />(c) Law of mass action<br />(d) Michaelis – Menten equation<br />(e) Noyes Whitney equation<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />56. Dose dumping is a problem in the formulation of<br />(a) Compressed tablets<br />(b) Modified- release drug products<br />(c) Hard gelatin capsules<br />(d) Soft gelatin capsules<br />(e) Suppositories<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />57. The rate of drug bioavailability is most rapid when the drug is formulated as a<br />(a) Controlled – release product<br />(b) Hard gelatin capsule<br />(c) Compressed tablet<br />(d) Solution<br />(e) Suspension<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />58. Creatinine clearance is used as a measurement of<br />(a) Renal excretion rate<br />(b) Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)<br />(c) Active renal secretion<br />(d) Passive renal absorption<br />(e) Drug metabolism rate<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />59. The earliest evidence that a drug is stored in tissue is<br />(a) An increase in plasma protein binding<br />(b) A large apparent volume of distribution (VD)<br />(c) A decrease in the rate of formation of metabolites by the liver<br />(d) An increase in the number of side effects produced by the drug<br />(e) A decrease in the amount of free drug excreted in the urine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />60. The intensity of the pharmacologic action of a drug is most dependent on the<br />(a) Concentration of the drug at the receptor site<br />(b) Elimination half-life (t½ ) of the drug<br />(c) Onset time of the drug after oral administration<br />(d) Minimum toxic concentration (MTC) of the drug in plasma<br />(e) Minimum effective concentration (MEC) of the drug in the body<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_5" style="display: none;">61. Drug that show nonlinear pharmacokinetics have which property?<br />(a) A constant ratio of drug metabolites is formed as the administered dose increases<br />(b) The elimination half-life (t½) increases as the administered dose increases<br />(c) The area under the plasma drug concentration versus time curve (AUC) increases in direct proportion to an increase in the administered dose<br />(d) Both low and high doses follow first-order elimination kinetics<br />(e) The steady-state drug concentration increases in direct proportion to the dosing rate<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />62. The loading dose (DL) of a drug is usually based on the<br />(a) Total body clearance (ClT) of the drug<br />(b) Percentage of drug bound to plasma proteins GENERAL PHARMACOLOGY 7<br />(c) Fraction of drug excreted unchanged in the urine<br />(d) Apparent volume of distribution (VD) and desired drug concentration in plasma<br />(e) Area under the plasma drug concentration versus time curve (AUC)<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />63. The renal clearance of insulin is used as a measurement of<br />(a) Effective renal blood flow<br />(b) Rate of renal drug excretion<br />(c) Intrinsic enzyme activity<br />(d) Active renal secretion<br />(e) Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : E ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />64. All of the following statements about plasma protein binding of a drug are true except<br />(a) Displacement of a drug from plasma protein binding sites results in a transient increased volume of distribution (VD)<br />(b) Displacement of a drug from plasma protein binding sites makes more free drug available for glomerular filtration<br />(c) Displacement of a potent drug that is normally more than 95% bound may cause toxicity<br />(d) Albumin is the major protein involved in protein binding of drugs<br />(e) Drugs that are highly bound to plasma proteins generally have a greater VD compared with drugs that are highly bound to tissue proteins<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : E ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />65. _______ is expressed in both the intestinal epithelium and the kidney.<br />(a) CYP2D6<br />(b) CYP1A1/2<br />(c) CYP3A4<br />(d) CYP2E1<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />66. The initial distribution of a drug into tissue is determined chiefly by the<br />(a) Rate of blood flow to tissue<br />(b) Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)<br />(c) Stomach emptying time<br />(d) Affinity of the drug for tissue<br />(e) Plasma protein binding of the drug<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />67. Which tissue has the greatest capacity to bio-transform drugs?<br />(a) Brain<br />(b) Kidney<br />(c) Liver<br />(d) Lung<br />(e) Skin<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />68. The principle of superposition in designing multiple-dose regimens assumes that<br />(a) Each dose affects the next subsequent dose causing nonlinear elimination<br />(b) Each dose of drug is eliminated by zero-order elimination<br />(c) Steady-state plasma drug concentration are reached at approximately 10 half-lives<br />(d) Early doses of drug do not affect subsequent doses<br />(e) The fraction of drug absorbed is equal to the fraction of drug eliminated<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />69. Which equation is true for a zero-order reaction rate of drug ?<br />(a) dA/dt = - k<br />(b) t½ = 0.693/k<br />(c) A = A0e -kt<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />70. Which of the following functional groups is most susceptible to hydrolysis ?<br />(a) R – CO – R<br />(b) R – COOR<br />(c) R – O - R<br />(d) R – NH- CH3<br />(e) R – COOH<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />71. Monomer units of proteins are known as<br />(a) Monosaccharides<br />(b) Prosthetic groups<br />(c) Amino acids<br />(d) Purines<br />(e) Nucleosides<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />72. Glucose is a carbohydrate that cannot be hydrolyzed into a simpler substance. It is best described as<br />(a) A sugar<br />(b) A monosaccharide<br />(c) A disaccharide<br />(d) A polysaccharide<br />(e) An oligosaccharide<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />73. All of the following carbohydrates are considered to be polysaccharides except<br />(a) Heparin<br />(b) Starch<br />(c) Glycogen<br />(d) Maltose<br />(e) Cellulose<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />74. Which of the following compounds are considered the building blocks of nucleic acids ?<br />(a) Nucleotides<br />(b) Nucleosides<br />(c) Monosaccharides<br />(d) Purines<br />(e) Amino acids<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />75. Which of the following terms best describes a co-factor that is firmly bound to an apoenzyme?<br />(a) Holoenzyme<br />(b) Prosthetic group<br />(c) Coenzyme<br />(d) Transferase<br />(e) Heteropolysaccharide<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_6" style="display: none;">76. Enzymes that uncouple peptide linkages are best classified as<br />(a) Hydrolases<br />(b) Ligases<br />(c) Oxidoreductases<br />(d) Transferases<br />(e) Isomaerases<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />77. The sugar that is inherent in the nucleic acids RNA and DNA is<br />(a) Glucose<br />(b) Sucrose<br />(c) Ribose<br />(d) Digitoxose<br />(e) Maltose<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />78. N-oxidation will be involved with the metabolism of following drugs, except<br />(a) Dapsone<br />(b) Meperidine<br />(c) Phenytoin<br />(d) Chlorpheniramine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />79. Which of the following statements describes plasmids? They<br />(a) Are single – stranded DNA molecules<br />(b) Carry optional gene(s)<br />(c) Carry genes essential for growth<br />(d) Are always found in linear form<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />80. Bacteria that grow at temperatures as high as 550C are known as<br />(a) Psychrophiles<br />(b) Thermophiles<br />(c) Mesophiles<br />(d) Auxotrophs<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />81. Which of the following organisms can use only molecular oxygen as the final acceptor?<br />(a) Obligate anaerobes<br />(b) Facultative anaerobes<br />(c) Obligate aerobes<br />(d) Strict anaerobes<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />82. A declining growth rate occurs during which of the following phases of bacterial cell growth?<br />(a) Lag phase<br />(b) Exponential phase<br />(c) Stationary phase<br />(d) Death phase<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />83. Which class of antibody has the longest serum half-life and opsonizes antigens for phagocytosis through two different pathways?<br />(a) Immunoglobulin G (IgG)<br />(b) Immunoglobulin M(IgM)<br />(c) Immunoglobulin A (IgA)<br />(d) Immunoglobulin E (IgE)<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />84. Urticaria that appears rapidly after the ingestion of food usually indicates which type of hypersensitivity reaction?<br />(a) Type I<br />(b) Type II<br />(c) Type III<br />(d) Type IV<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />85. A patient receives long-term, high-dose therapy with a sulfonamide. After approximately 3 weeks of therapy, the patient has a low-grade fever, rash, and muscle and joint pain. Which type of hypersensitivity accounts for these symptoms?<br />(a) Type I<br />(b) Type II<br />(c) Type III<br />(d) Type IV<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />86. CD4+T cells specifically recognize antigens in which form?<br />(a) Bound to major histocompatibility (MHC) class I molecules on the surface of any body cell<br />(b) In free, soluble form in extracellular fluids<br />(c) Bound to MHC class II molecules on the surface of special antigen-presenting cells(APCs)<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />87. Which of the following statements concerning a drug receptor is true?<br />(a) It mediates the nonspecific action of volatile anesthetics<br />(b) Its expression is induced only by exogenously added drugs<br />(c) It can bind endogenous ligand to produce physiological activity<br />(d) It mediates the cathartic activity of magnesium citrate<br />(e) Down-regulation of receptor level can lead to sensitization of the target cell to the receptor agonist.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />88. Which of the following acids has the highest degree of ionization in an aqueous solution?<br />(a) Aspirin pKa = 3.5<br />(b) Indomethacin pKa = 4.5<br />(c) Warfarin pKa = 5.1<br />(d) Ibuprofen pKa = 5.2<br />(e) Phenobarbital pKa = 7.4<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />89. Which of the following salts forms an aqueous solution that is alkaline to litmus?<br />(a) Sodium chloride<br />(b) Benzalkonium chloride<br />(c) Meperidine hydrochloride<br />(d) Cefazolin sodium<br />(e) Chlordiazepoxide hydrochloride<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />90. Hydrolysis reaction are involved with the metabolism of following drugs, except<br />(a) Procaine<br />(b) Diazepam<br />(c) Aspirin<br />(d) Lidocaine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_7" style="display: none;">91. Flurazepam has pKa of 8.2. What percentage of flurazepam will be ionized at a urine pH of 5.2?<br />(a) 0.1%<br />(b) 1%<br />(c) 50%<br />(d) 99%<br />(e) 99.9%<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : E ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />92. Precipitation may occur when mixing aqueous solutions of meperidine hydrochloride with which of the following solutions?<br />(a) Sodium bicarbonate injection<br />(b) Atropine sulfate injection<br />(c) Sodium chloride injection<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />93. The excretion of a weakly acidic drug generally is more rapid in alkaline urine than in acidic urine. This process occurs because<br />(a) A weak acid in alkaline media will exist primarily in its ionized form, which cannot be reabsorbed easily<br />(b) A weak acid in alkaline media will exist in its lipophilic form, which cannot be reabsorbed easily.<br />(c) All drugs are excreted more rapidly in an alkaline urine.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />94. Which of the following drugs is considered to be the agent of choice for anaphylactic reactions?<br />(a) Edrophonium<br />(b) Ipratropium<br />(c) Ambenonium<br />(d) Propantheline<br />(e) Homatropine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />95. Which of the following drugs is considred to be the agent of choice for anaphylactic reactions?<br />(a) Clonidine<br />(b) Isoproterenol<br />(c) Epinephrine<br />(d) Phenylephrine<br />(e) Terbutaline<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />96. Which of the following emissions from the decay of radionuclides is most commonly used in nuclear medicine imaging?<br />(a) X-ray<br />(b) Beta<br />(c) Alpha<br />(d) Gamma<br />(e) Positron<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />97. Which of the following radionuclides is mot commonly used in nuclear pharmacy practice?<br />(a) 67GA<br />(b) 201TI<br />(c) 99mTC<br />(d) 123I<br />(e) 133Xe<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />98. Which of the following radionuclides is generator produced?<br />(a) 99mTC<br />(b) 201TI<br />(c) 67GA<br />(d) 133Xe<br />(e) 123I<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />99. Abrasives, ingredients in dentifrices, are noted for which of the following actions?<br />(a) Providing flavor<br />(b) Cleansing via a foaming detergent action<br />(c) Removing plaque and debris<br />(d) Preventing dental caries<br />(e) Adding thickness to the product<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />100. The appropriate pH range for ophthalmic products is<br />(a) 2.0 – 3.0<br />(b) 4.0 – 6.0<br />(c) 6.0 – 8.0<br />(d) 8.0 – 10.0<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />101. Which type of contact lens can most easily be ruined by the absorption of chemicals?<br />(a) Hard lenses<br />(b) Soft lenses<br />(c) Gas-permeable lenses<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />102. All of the following desensitizing agents are recommended for sensitive teeth except<br />(a) 10% carbamide peroxide<br />(b) 5% potassium nitrate<br />(c) Dibasic sodium citrate<br />(d) 10% strontium chloride hexahydrate<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />103. Carbamide peroxide appears to soften earwax by<br />(a) Causing oxygen to be released, which loosens the wax<br />(b) Stimulating fluid secretion in the ear canal<br />(c) Actually dissolving the ear wax<br />(d) Decreasing lipid content of the wax<br />(e) None of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />104. A common oral problem caused by herpes simplex type I virus (HSV-1) is<br />(a) Aphthous ulcers<br />(b) Canker sores<br />(c) Aphthous stomatitis<br />(d) Fever blisters<br />(e) Thrush<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />105. The definition of a surfactant (an ingredient in toothpaste) can best be described by which of the following statements? Surfactant<br />(a) Prevents drying of the preparation<br />(b) Removes debris by its detergent action and causes foaming, which is usually desired by the patient<br />(c) Physically removes plaque and debris<br />(d) Determines the texture, dispersiveness, and appearance of the product<br />(e) Adds flavor to the preparation which makes it more appealing to the patient<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_8" style="display: none;">106. Which is not a risk factor for hyperphosphatemia and death from sodium phosphate enemas when used in children?<br />(a) Renal insufficiency<br />(b) Hirschsprung’s disease<br />(c) Anorectal malformations<br />(d) Children between the ages of 6 and 12 years<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />107. Which of the following factors is associated with an increased risk of noncompliance in the elderly?<br />(a) Polypharmacy<br />(b) Hypertension<br />(c) Male gender<br />(d) Living with a spouse in an isolated environment<br />(e) Expensive medications<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />108. The principal difference between competitive and non-competitive inhibition is<br />(a) Extent of receptor site blocking<br />(b) Whether inhibition occurs<br />(c) Extent of enzyme inhibition<br />(d) Degree of agonism<br />(e) None of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />109. Drug administrated through which of the following routes is mot likely to be subjected to first-pass metabolism:<br />(a) Oral<br />(b) Sublingual<br />(c) Subcutaneous<br />(d) Rectal<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />110. Many receptors use distinct hetero _________ GTPä-binding regulatory proteins<br />(a) Tetrameric<br />(b) Trimeric<br />(c) Dimeric<br />(d) Monomeric<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />111. Alkalinization of urine hastens the excretion of<br />(a) Weakly basic drugs<br />(b) Weakly acidic drugs<br />(c) Strong electrolytes<br />(d) Nonpolar drugs<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />112. Majority of drugs cross biological membranes primarily by<br />(a) Weakly basic drugs<br />(b) Weakly acidic drugs<br />(c) Strong electrolytes<br />(d) Nonpolar drugs<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />113. The most important factor which governs diffusion of drugs across capillaries other than those in the brain is<br />(a) Blood flow through the capillary<br />(b) Lipid solubility of the drug<br />(c) pKa value of the drug<br />(d) pH of the medium<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />114. Active transport of a substance across biological membrane has the following characteristics except<br />(a) It is specific<br />(b) It is pH dependent<br />(c) It is saturable<br />(d) It requires metabolic energy<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />115. Bioavailability differences among oral formulations of a drug are most likely to occur if the drug<br />(a) Is freely water soluble<br />(b) Is completely absorbed<br />(c) Is incompletely absorbed<br />(d) Undergoes little first-pass metabolism<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />116. Bioavailability of drug refers to<br />(a) Perecentage of administered dose that reaches systemic circulation in the unchanged form<br />(b) Rario of oral to parental dose<br />(c) Ratio of orally administered drug to that excreted in the faeces<br />(d) Ratio of drug excreted unchanged in urine to that excreted as metabolites<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />117. The most important factor governing absorption of a drug from intact skin is<br />(a) Molecular weight of the drug<br />(b) Site of application<br />(c) Lipid solubility of the drug<br />(d) Nature of the base used in the formulation<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />118. Redistribution is a feature of<br />(a) Highly plasma protein bound drugs<br />(b) Depot preparations<br />(c) Poorly lipid soluble drugs<br />(d) Highly lipid soluble drugs<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />119. Weakly acidic drugs<br />(a) Are bound primarily to a1 acid glycoprotein in plasma<br />(b) Are excreted faster in alkaline urine<br />(c) Are highly ionized in the gastric juice<br />(d) Do not cross blood—brain barrier<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />120. High plasma protein binding<br />(a) Increases the volume of distribution of the drug<br />(b) Facilitates glomerular filtrtion of the drug<br />(c) Minimizes drug interactions<br />(d) Generally makes the drug long acting<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_9" style="display: none;">121. Biotransformation of drugs is primarily directed to<br />(a) Activate the drug<br />(b) Inactivate the drug<br />(c) Convert lipid soluble drugs into nonlipid soluble metabolites<br />(d) Convert nonlipid soluble drugs into lipid soluble metabolites<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />122. A prodrg is<br />(a) The prototype member of a class of drugs<br />(b) The oldest member of a class of drugs<br />(c) An inactive drug that is transformed in the body to an active metabolite<br />(d) A drug that is stored in body tissues and is then gradually released in the circulation<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />123. Which of the following cytochrome P450 isoenzymes is involved in the metabolism of a large number of drugs in human beings and has been implicated in some dangerous drug interactions:<br />(a) CYP 3A4<br />(b) CYP 2C9<br />(c) CYP 2E1<br />(d) CYP 1A2<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />124. The most commonly occurring conjugation reaction for drugs and their metabolites is<br />(a) Glucuronidation<br />(b) Acetylation<br />(c) Methylation<br />(d) Glutathione conjugation<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />125. G-protein coupled receptors span the plasma membrane as a bundle of _____ alpha helices<br />(a) One<br />(b) Three<br />(c) Seven<br />(d) Ten<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />126. Which of the following drug metabolizing reactions is entirely nonmicrosomal<br />(a) Glucuronide conjugation<br />(b) Acetylation<br />(c) Oxidation<br />(d) Reduction<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />127. Induction of drug metabolizing enzymes involves<br />(a) A conformational change in the enzyme protein to favor binding of substrate molecules<br />(b) Expression of enzyme molecules on the surface of hepatocytes<br />(c) Enhanced transport of substrate molecules into hepatocytes<br />(d) Increased synthesis of enzyme protein<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />128. Drugs which undergo high degree of firstpass metabolism in liver<br />(a) Have oral bioavailability<br />(b) Are excreted primarily in bile<br />(c) Are contraindicated in liver disease<br />(d) Exhibit zero order kinetics of elimination<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />129. Glomerular filtration of a drug is affected by its<br />(a) Lipid solubility<br />(b) Plasma protein binding<br />(c) Degree of ionization<br />(d) Rate of tubular secretion<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />130. If a drug undergoes net tubular secretion, its renal clearance will be<br />(a) More than the glomerular filtration rate<br />(b) Equal to the glomerular filtration rate<br />(c) Less than the glomerular filtration rate<br />(d) Equal to the rate of urine formation<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />131. Which of the following is not a primary fundamental, but a derived pharmacokinetic parameter<br />(a) Bio-availability<br />(b) Volume of distribution<br />(c) Clearance<br />(d) Plasma half life<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />132. If a drug is eliminated by first order kinetics<br />(a) A constant amount of the drug will be eliminated per unit time<br />(b) Its clearance value will remain constant<br />(c) Its elimination half-life will increase with dose<br />(d) It will be completely eliminated from the body in 2 x half-life period<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />133. If a drug has a constant bio-availability and first order elimination, its maintainance dose rate will be directly proportional to its<br />(a) Volume of distribution<br />(b) Plasma protein binding<br />(c) Lipid solubility<br />(d) Total body clearance<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />134. The following dose of a drug is governed by its<br />(a) Aqueous diffusion<br />(b) Aqueous hydrolysis<br />(c) Lipid diffusion<br />(d) Pinocytosis or endocytosis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />135. Monitoring plasma drug concentration is useful while using<br />(a) Antihypertensive drugs<br />(b) Levodopa<br />(c) Lithium carbonate<br />(d) MAO inhibitors<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_10" style="display: none;">136. Microsomal enzyme induction has one of the following features<br />(a) Takes about one week to develop<br />(b) Results in increased affinity of the enzyme for the substrate<br />(c) It is irreversible<br />(d) Can be used to treat acute drug poisonings<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />137. Which of the following is a competitive type of enzyme inhibitor<br />(a) Acetazolamide<br />(b) Disulfiram<br />(c) Physostigmine<br />(d) Theophyline<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />138. What is true in relation to drug receptors<br />(a) All drugs act through specific receptors<br />(b) All drug receptors are located on the surface of the target cells<br />(c) Agonists induce a conformational change in the receptor<br />(d) Partial agonists have low affinity for the receptor<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />139. A partial agonist can antagonize the effects of a full agonist because it has<br />(a) High affinity but low intrinsic activity<br />(b) Low affinity but high intrinsic activity<br />(c) No affinity and low intrinsic activity<br />(d) High affinity but no intrinsic activity<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />140. Receptor agonists possess<br />(a) Result in increased smooth endoplasmic reticulum<br />(b) Result in increased rough endoplasmic reticulum<br />(c) Result in decreased enzymes in the soluble cytoplasmic fraction<br />(d) Require 3–4 months to reach completion<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />141. Agonists affect the receptor molecule in the following manner<br />(a) Alter its amino acid sequence<br />(b) Denature the receptor protein<br />(c) Alter its folding or alignment of subunits<br />(d) Induce covalent bond formation<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />142. Receptors perform the following function/functions<br />(a) Ligand recognition<br />(b) Signal transduction<br />(c) Both ligand recognition and signal transduction<br />(d) Disposal of agonists and antagonists<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />143. Which of the following receptor types has 7 helical membrane, spanning amino acid segments with 3 extracellular and 3 intracellular loops<br />(a) Tyrosine protein kinase receptor<br />(b) Gene expression regulating receptor<br />(c) Intrinsic ion channel containing receptor<br />(d) G protein coupled receptor<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />144. Which of the following is a G protein coupled receptor<br />(a) Muscarinic cholinergic receptor<br />(b) Nicotinic cholinergic receptor<br />(c) Glucocorticoid receptor<br />(d) Insulin receptor<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />145. Placebo effects result presumably from the<br />(a) Physician-patient relationship<br />(b) Mental set up imparted by the therapeutic settings<br />(c) Mental set up imparted by the physician<br />(d) All of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />146. All of the following subserve as intracellular second messengers in receptor mediated signal transduction except<br />(a) Cyclic AMP<br />(b) Inositol trisphosphate<br />(c) Diacyl glycerols<br />(d) G protein<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />147. A receptor which itself has enzymatic property is<br />(a) Insulin receptor<br />(b) Progesterone receptor<br />(c) Thyroxine receptor<br />(d) Glucagon receptor<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />148. Down regulation of receptors can occur as a consequence of<br />(a) Continuous use of agonists<br />(b) Continuous use of antagonists<br />(c) Chronic use of CNS depressants<br />(d) Denervation<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />149. When therapeutic effects decline both below and above a narrow range of doses, a drug is said to exhibit<br />(a) Ceiling effect<br />(b) Desensitization<br />(c) Therapeutic window phenomenon<br />(d) Nonreceptor mediated action<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />150. ‘Drug efficacy’ refers to<br />(a) The range of diseases in which the drug is beneficial<br />(b) The maximal intensity of response that can be produced by the drug<br />(c) The therapeutic dose range of the drug<br />(d) The therapeutic index of the drug<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br/></div><script language="JavaScript1.2" type="text/javascript"> //The functions disableselect() and reEnable() are used to return the status of events. function disableselect(e) { return false } function reEnable() { return true } //if IE4 // disable text selection document.onselectstart=new Function ("return false") //if NS6 if (window.sidebar) { //document.onmousedown=disableselect // the above line creates issues in mozilla so keep it commented. document.onclick=reEnable } function clickIE() { if (document.all) { (message); return false; } } </script><b>Go to next Page: <span style="color: #3d85c6;"></span></b><br /><div class="post-pagination"><b><span style="color: #3d85c6;"><a class="button_1" href="#">Part 1</a><a class="button_2" href="#">Part 2</a><a class="button_3" href="#">Part 3</a><a class="button_4" href="#">Part 4</a><a class="button_5" href="#">Part 5</a><a class="button_6" href="#">Part 6</a><a class="button_7" href="#">Part 7</a><a class="button_8" href="#">Part 8</a><a class="button_9" href="#">Part 9</a><a class="button_10" href="#">Part 10</a></span></b></div>

mcq medical Pharmacology staff nurse staffnursemcq [Objective] MCQ's on Pharmacology for Staff Nurses and Medical Exams

1. All of the following are general mechanisms of drug permeation Except (a) Aqueous diffusion (b) Aqueous hydrolysis (c) Lipid diffusion (d...

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