MCQs on Vitamins and Minerals for Staff Nurse and Medical Exams

<div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgWZRpElmLiLQ54Xo7cYeevbNlr6OM0LhuLnfTzlePj7XR7dJPGjBm7ifZnyGvn-JY1DUYR76DUlaUVBbXwpyjoCjNV33OPaFriJP7gZHFMvC3GuW3z4QFLpquiDVVwFnB7bigiwBjvVJeW/s1600/Vitamins+%252B+Minerals+1.jpg" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" height="284" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEgWZRpElmLiLQ54Xo7cYeevbNlr6OM0LhuLnfTzlePj7XR7dJPGjBm7ifZnyGvn-JY1DUYR76DUlaUVBbXwpyjoCjNV33OPaFriJP7gZHFMvC3GuW3z4QFLpquiDVVwFnB7bigiwBjvVJeW/s640/Vitamins+%252B+Minerals+1.jpg" width="640" /></a></div>1. Thiamine is vitamin<br />(a) B1<br />(b) B2<br />(c) B6<br />(d) B12<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />2. The iron stored in intestinal mucosal cells is complexed to<br />(a) Ferritin<br />(b) Intrinsic factor<br />(c) Oprelvekin<br />(d) Transcobalamin II<br />(e) Transferrin<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />3. Which of the following is most likely to be required by a 5-year-old boy with chronic renal in sufficiency?<br />(a) Erythropoietin<br />(b) G-CSF<br />(c) Interleukin - 11<br />(d) Stem cell factor<br />(e) Thrombopoietin<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />4. In adults, approximately ______ mg of thiamine per day is completely degraded by the tissue<br />(a) 0.01<br />(b) 0.1<br />(c) 1<br />(d) 10<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />5. The drug of choice for the management of osteoporosis caused by high-dose use of glucocorticoids is<br />(a) Alendronate<br />(b) Calcitonin<br />(c) Mestranol<br />(d) Oxandrolone<br />(e) Vitamin D<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />6. Which of the following drugs is correctly associated with its clinical application?<br />(a) Erythropoietin : Macrocytic anemia<br />(b) Filgrastim : Thrombocytopenia due to myelocytic leukemia<br />(c) Iron dextran : Severe macrocytic anemia<br />(d) Ferrous sulfate : Microcytic anemia of pregnancy<br />(e) Folic acid : Hemochromatosis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />7. Conversion of methionine to cysteine depends on vitamin<br />(a) B1<br />(b) B2<br />(c) B6<br />(d) B12<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />8. Avidin, a protein found in egg white is an antagonist of<br />(a) Biotin<br />(b) Pantothenic acid<br />(c) Choline<br />(d) Pyridoxal<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />9. All of the following are important functions of magnesium (Mg) except<br />(a) Nerve conduction<br />(b) Phospholipid synthesis<br />(c) Muscle contractility<br />(d) Carbohydrate, fat, and electrolyte metabolism<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />10. Factors likely to cause an increase in the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level include<br />(a) Intramuscular (IM)injection of diazepam(Valium)<br />(b) Severe liver disease<br />(c) Chronic kidney disease<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />11. Physiologically carnitine plays following role<br />(a) Important for oxidation of fatty acids<br />(b) Decreases aerobic metabolism of carbohydrates<br />(c) Decreases rate of oxidative phosphorylation<br />(d) All of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />12. Patients receiving iron therapy should be warned about<br />(a) Dizziness<br />(b) Ringing in the ears<br />(c) Danger of sunlight<br />(d) Blackening of the stool<br />(e) Paresthesia<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />13. Therapeutically vitamin B1 has been employed most successfully in the treatment of<br />(a) Microcytic anemia<br />(b) Pellagra<br />(c) Scurvy<br />(d) Beriberi<br />(e) Macrocytic anemia<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />14. Magnesium ion is necessary in<br />(a) Stimulating enzyme systems<br />(b) Muscular contraction<br />(c) Nerve conduction<br />(d) All of the above<br />(e) None of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />15. The following derivatives of retinal shows the greatest biological potency than others<br />(a) 9-Cis-retinoic acid<br />(b) All-trans-retinoic acid<br />(c) All-trans-retinol<br />(d) 11-Cis-retinal<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />16. The drug used for controlling tetany is<br />(a) Intravenous diazepam<br />(b) Intramuscular vitamin D<br />(c) Intravenous calcium gluconate<br />(d) Intravenous calcitonin<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />17. Absorption of oral iron preparations can be facilitated by coadministering<br />(a) Antacids<br />(b) Tetracyclines<br />(c) Phosphates<br />(d) Ascorbic acid<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />18. The gut controls the entry of ingested iron in the body of<br />(a) Regulating the availability of apoferritin which acts as the carrier of iron across the mucosal cell<br />(b) Regulating the turnover of apoferritin-ferritin interconversion in the mucosal cell<br />(c) Complexing excess iron to form ferritin which remains stored in the mucosal cell and is shed off<br />(d) Regulating the number of transferring receptors on the mucosal cell<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />19. The percentage of elemental iron hydrated ferrous sulfate is<br />(a) 5%<br />(b) 10%<br />(c) 20%<br />(d) 33%<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />20. In isolated fibroblast or epithelial cells, retinoids enhance the synthesis of following protein<br />(a) Fibronectin<br />(b) Collagenase<br />(c) Certain species of keratin<br />(d) All of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />21. The side effect which primarily limits acceptability of oral iron therapy is<br />(a) Epigastric pain and bowel upset<br />(b) Black stools<br />(c) Staining of teeth<br />(d) Metallic taste<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />22. Iron sorbitol-citric acid differs from iron dextran in that<br />(a) It cannot be injected i.v.<br />(b) It is not excreted in urine<br />(c) It is not bound to transferritin in plasma<br />(d) It produces fewer side effects<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />23. Which of the following is true about iron therapy ?<br />(a) Haemoglobin response to intramuscular iron is faster than with oral iron therapy<br />(b) Iron must be given orally except in pernicious anaemia<br />(c) Prophylactic iron therapy must be given during pregnancy<br />(d) Infants on breast feeding do not require medicinal iron<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />24. Concentrations of retinal in plasma in excess of _____ µg/dl usually are diagnostic of hypervitaminosis A<br />(a) 10<br />(b) 50<br />(c) 100<br />(d) 200<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />25. Megaloblastic anaemia occurs in<br />(a) Vitamin B12 but not folic acid deficiency<br />(b) Folic acid but not Vitamin B12 deficiency<br />(c) Either Vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency<br />(d) Only combined Vitamin B12 + folic acid deficiency<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />26. The daily dietary requirement of Vitamin B12 by an adult is<br />(a) 1–3 µg<br />(b) 50–100 µg<br />(c) 0.1–0.5 µg<br />(d) 1–3 µg<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />27. Which of the following factor(s) is/are required for the absorption of Vitamin B12 ingested in physiological amounts ?<br />(a) Gastric acid<br />(b) Gastric intrinsic factor<br />(c) Transcobalamine<br />(d) Both (a) and (b)<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />28. Hydroxocobalamine differs from cyanocobalamine in that<br />(a) It is more protein bound and better retained<br />(b) It is beneficial in tobacco amblyopia<br />(c) It benefits haematological but not neurological manifestations of Vit B12 deficiencey<br />(d) Both (a) and (b)<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />29. Megaloblastic anemia is caused by deficiency of<br />(a) Iron<br />(b) Vitamin B12<br />(c) Vitamin C<br />(d) All of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />30. Vitamin B12 is a required co-factor for the following reaction<br />(a) Conversion of methylmalonyl-CoA to succinyl- CoA<br />(b) Conversion of 5-CH3-H4-folate to H4-folate<br />(c) Conversion of homocysteine to methionine<br />(d) All of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />31. Vitamin K is indicated for the treatment of bleeding occurring in patients<br />(a) Being treated with heparin<br />(b) Being treated with streptokinase<br />(c) Of obstructive jaundice<br />(d) Of peptic ulcer<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />32. Menadione (Vitamin K3)<br />(a) Can cause hemolysis in patients with G-6-PD deficiency<br />(b) Is given in large doses in patients with severe liver disease<br />(c) Is useful to prevent haemorrhagic disease of the newborn<br />(d) Is the preparation of choice to antagonize the effect of warfarin overdose<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />33. Vitamin K promotes the hepatic biosynthesis of following blood clotting factor<br />(a) Factor I<br />(b) Factor II<br />(c) Factor VIII<br />(d) All of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />34. folinic acid is principally used<br />(a) In pernicious anaemia<br />(b) In megaloblastic anaemia secondary to Vitamin B12<br />(c) Along with methotrexate therapy<br />(d) In treatment of folic acid deficiency<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />35. Penicillamine<br />(a) Is effective orally<br />(b) Can cause anaphylactic reactions in patients allergic to penicillin<br />(c) Is safe in pregnancy<br />(d) Is not effective in lead poisoning<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />36. Succimer<br />(a) Can significantly mobilize essential metals<br />(b) Produces less toxicity than Dimercaprol<br />(c) Is ineffective orally<br />(d) Is contraindicated in children<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br />

mcq medical staff nurse staffnursemcq vitamines and minerals MCQs on Vitamins and Minerals for Staff Nurse and Medical Exams

1. Thiamine is vitamin (a) B1 (b) B2 (c) B6 (d) B12 2. The iron stored in intestinal mucosal cells is complexed to (a) Ferritin (b) Intrinsi...

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MCQs on Structure of DNA and RNA for Staff Nurse and Medical Exams

<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on"><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjuRRV1pdt6w-Lv3t4ljIRmDTc45hVuig9lq_R040iVcg66jtnRJtxt-pQjr-2SfZRbITf_RGt5lVPoRv05ZLUjkOKZ0-6UOU3B0moXKLyoa7sac7CtwvtnXWIgB3w4M3ls3zsIpLZ_b5WB/s1600/maxresdefault+1.jpg" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" height="326" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjuRRV1pdt6w-Lv3t4ljIRmDTc45hVuig9lq_R040iVcg66jtnRJtxt-pQjr-2SfZRbITf_RGt5lVPoRv05ZLUjkOKZ0-6UOU3B0moXKLyoa7sac7CtwvtnXWIgB3w4M3ls3zsIpLZ_b5WB/s640/maxresdefault+1.jpg" width="640" /></a></div><div class="content_1">1. A peculiar cytochrome is observed in bacteria and it can react with molecular oxygen, what is it?<br />a. Cyt b<br />b. Cyt c<br />c. Cyt d<br />d. Cyt o<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />2. The genetic material in HIV is<br />a. ds DNA<br />b. ss DNA<br />c. s RNA<br />d. None of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />3. Which one of the following mutagens act only on replicating DNA?<br />a. Ethidium bromide<br />b. Nitrosogeranidine<br />c. Acridine orange<br />d. None of above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />4. Poly A tail is frequently found in<br />a. Histone in RNA<br />b. Bacterial RNA<br />c. eukaryotic RNA<br />d. TRNA<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />5. Which of the following is an example of RNA virus?<br />a. SV 40<br />b. T4 phage<br />c. Tobacco mosaic virus<br />d. Adeno virus<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />6. Genomic DNA is extracted, broken into fragments of reasonable size by a restriction endonuclease and then inserted into a cloning vector to generate chimeric vectors. The cloned fragments are called<br />a. Clones<br />b. Genomic library<br />c. mRNA<br />d. None of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />7. Transgenic animals are produced when GH gene fused with<br />a. MT gene<br />b. GH<br />c. GRF<br />d. FIX<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />8. In which medium the hydridoma cells grow selectively?<br />a. Polyethylene glycol<br />b. Hypoxanthine aminopterin thyminine<br />c. Hypoxathing-guaning phosphoribosyl transferase<br />d. Both b and c<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />9. The enzymes which are commonly used in genetic engineering are<br />a. Exonuclease and ligase<br />b. Restriction endonuclease and polymerase<br />c. Ligase and polymerase<br />d. Restriction endonuclease and ligase<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />10. A successful hybridoma was produced by fusing<br />a. Plasma cells and plasmids<br />b. Plasma cells and myeloma cells<br />c. Myeloma cells and plasmids<br />d. Plasma cells and bacterial cells<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_2" style="display: none;">11. The technique involved in comparing the DNA components of two samples is known as<br />a. Monoclonal antibody techniques<br />b. Genetic finger printing<br />c. Recombinant DNA technology<br />d. Polymerase chain reaction<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />12. Plasmids are ideal vectors for genecloning as<br />a. They can be multiplied by culturing<br />b. They can be multiplied in the laboratory using enzymes<br />c. They can replicate freely outside the bacterial cell<br />d. They are self replicating within the bacterial cell<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />13. Humans normally have 46 chromosomes in skin cells. How many autosomes would be expected in a kidney cell?<br />a. 46<br />b. 23<br />c. 47<br />d. 44<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />14. Pasteur effect is due to<br />a. Change from aerobic to anaerobic<br />b. Providing oxygen to anaerobically respiring structures<br />c. Rapid utilization of ATP<br />d. Nonsynthesis of ATP<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />15. A mechanism that can cause a gene to move from one linkage group to another is<br />a. Trans location<br />b. Inversion<br />c. Crossing over<br />d. Duplication<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />16. The smallest unit of genetic material that can undergo mutation is called<br />a. Gene<br />b. Cistron<br />c. Replicon<br />d. Muton<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />17. The two chromatids of metaphase chrosome represent<br />a. Replicated chromosomes to be separated at anaphase<br />b. Homologous chromosomes of a diploid set<br />c. Non-homologous chromosomes joined at the centromere<br />d. Maternal and paternal chromosomes joined at the centromere<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />18. Malate dehydrogenase enzyme is a<br />a. Transferase<br />b. Hydrolase<br />c. Isomerase<br />d. Oxido reductase<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />19. In E.Coli att site is in between<br />a. Gal and biogenes<br />b. Bio and niacin genes<br />c. Gal and B genes<br />d. None of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />20. The best vector for gene cloning<br />a. Relaxed control plasmid<br />b. Stringent control plasmid<br />c. Both a and b<br />d. None of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_3" style="display: none;">21. A gene that takes part in the synthesis of polypeptide is<br />a. Structural gene<br />b. Regulator gene<br />c. Operator gene<br />d. Promoter gene<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />22. DNA replicates during<br />a. G1 – phase<br />b. S – phase<br />c. G2 – phase<br />d. M – phase<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />23. A human cell containing 22 autosome and a ‘Y’ chromosome is probably a<br />a. Male somatic cell<br />b. Zygote<br />c. Female somatic cell<br />d. Sperm cell<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />24. Crossing-over most commonly occurs during<br />a. Prophase I<br />b. Prophase II<br />c. Anaphase I<br />d. Telophase II<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />25. DNA-replication is by the mechanism of<br />a. Conservative<br />b. Semiconservative<br />c. Dispersive<br />d. None of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />26. Production of RNA from DNA is called<br />a. Translation<br />b. RNA splicing<br />c. Transcription<br />d. Transposition<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />27. Nucleic acids contain<br />a. Alanine<br />b. Adenine<br />c. Lysine<br />d. Arginine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />28. What are the structural units of nucleic acids?<br />a. N-bases<br />b. Nucleosides<br />c. Nucleotides<br />d. Histones<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />29. The most important function of a gene is to synthesize<br />a. Enzymes<br />b. Hormones<br />c. RNA<br />d. DNA<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />30. One of the genes present exclusively on the X-chromosome in humans is concerned with<br />a. Baldness<br />b. Red-green colour baldness<br />c. Facial hair/moustache in males<br />d. Night blindness<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_4" style="display: none;">31. Peptide linkages are formed in between<br />a. Nucleotides<br />b. Amino acids<br />c. Glucose molecules<br />d. Sucrose<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />32. The nucleic acid of polio viruses is<br />a. DNA<br />b. RNA – (+) type<br />c. t-RNA<br />d. m-RNA<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />33. Rabies virus is<br />a. Nake RNA virus<br />b. Naked DNA virus<br />c. Enveloped RNA virus<br />d. Enveloped DNA virus<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />34. Example for DNA virus:<br />a. Polio virus<br />b. Adeno virus<br />c. Echo virus<br />d. Poty virus<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />35. In genetic engineering breaks in DNA are formed by enzymes known as<br />a. Restriction enzymes<br />b. Ligases<br />c. Nucleases<br />d. Hydralases<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />36. DNA transfer from one bacterium to another through phages is termed as<br />a. Transduction<br />b. Induction<br />c. Transfection<br />d. Infection<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />37. Microorganisms usually make acetyl CO-A by oxidizing<br />a. Acetic acid<br />b. Pyruvic acid<br />c. a-ketoglutaric acid<br />d. Fumaric acid<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />38. The method of DNA replication proposed by Watson and Crick is<br />a. Semi conservative<br />b. Conservative<br />c. Dispersive<br />d. Rolling loop<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />39. The distance between each turn in the helical strand of DNA is<br />a. 20 Ao<br />b. 34 Ao<br />c. 28 Ao<br />d. 42 Ao<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />40. Self-replicating, small circular DNA molecules present in bacterial cell are known<br />a. Plasmids<br />b. Cosmids<br />c. Plasmomeros<br />d. plastides<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_5" style="display: none;">41. Western blotting is the technique used in the determination of<br />a. RNA<br />b. DNA<br />c. Proteins<br />d. All of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />42. m RNA synthesis from DNA is termed<br />a. Transcription<br />b. Transformation<br />c. Translation<br />d. Replication<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />43. Western blotting is a technique used in the determination of<br />a. DNA<br />b. RNA<br />c. Protein<br />d. Polysaccharides<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />44. Building blocks of Nucleic acids are<br />a. Amino acids<br />b. Nucleosides<br />c. Nucleotides<br />d. Nucleo proteins<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />45. DNA finger printing is based on<br />a. Repetitive sequences<br />b. Unique sequences<br />c. Amplified sequences<br />d. Non-coding sequences<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />46. The enzyme required for DNA from RNA template:<br />a. RNA polymerase<br />b. Reverse transcriptase<br />c. DNA polymerase<br />d. Terminal transferase<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />47. Double standard RNA is seen in<br />a. Reo virus<br />b. Rhabdo virus<br />c. Parvo virus<br />d. Retro virus<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />48. Example for DNA viruses:<br />a. Adeno virus<br />b. Bacteriophage T1, T2, T3, T4, T5, T6<br />c. Papova virus<br />d. Herpes virus and cauliflower moisaic<br />e. All of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : E ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />49. The following are the RNA viruses, except<br />a. Reo viruses<br />b. Retro viruses<br />c. Bacteriophage F C<br />d. Tmv and Bacteriophages Ms2, F2<br />e. Dahila mosaic virus and Bacteriophages F × 174, M12, M13<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : E ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />50. The two strands of DNA are joined noncovalently by<br />a. Ionic bonds<br />b. Covalent bonds<br />c. Hydrogen bonds between bases<br />d. Polar charges<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_6" style="display: none;">51. The bases Adenine and Thymine are paired with<br />a. Double hydrogen bonds<br />b. Single hydrogen bonds<br />c. Triple hydrogen bonds<br />d. Both b and c<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />52. The no. of hydrogen bonds existing between Guanine and Cytosine are<br />a. 5<br />b. 2<br />c. 3<br />d. None of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />53. The length of each coil in DNA strand is<br />a. 15 Ao<br />b. 34 Ao<br />c. 30 Ao<br />d. 5 Ao<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />54. Nucleic acids are highly charged polymers due to<br />a. There is phosphodiester bond between 5’- hydroxyl of one ribose and 3’–hydroxyl of next ribose<br />b. They have positive and negative ends<br />c. Nucleotides are charged structures<br />d. Nitrogenous bases are highly ionized compounds<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />55. The best studied example for specialized transduction is<br />a. P1 phage<br />b. P22 phage<br />c. ë-phage<br />d. Both a and c<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />56. The diagrammatic representation of the total no. of genes in DNA is<br />a. Genome<br />b. Gene map<br />c. Gene-structure<br />d. Chromatin<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />57. During specialized transduction<br />a. Large amound of DNA is transferred<br />b. A few no. of genes are transferred<br />c. Whole DNA is transferred<br />d. None of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />58. The cell donating DNA during transformation is<br />a. Endogenate<br />b. Exogenate<br />c. Mesozygote<br />d. Merosite<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />59. Genetic information transfer DNA to RNA is called –<br />a. Transcriptase<br />b. Transduction<br />c. Transformation<br />d. Recombination<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />60. The gene transfer occurs by –<br />a. Transformation<br />b. Transduction<br />c. Conjugation<br />d. Cell fusion<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /></div><b>Go to next Page: <span style="color: #3d85c6;"></span></b><br /><div class="post-pagination"><b><span style="color: #3d85c6;"><a class="button_1" href="https://www.blogger.com/blogger.g?blogID=8452087976066462573#">Part 1</a><a class="button_2" href="https://www.blogger.com/blogger.g?blogID=8452087976066462573#">Part 2</a><a class="button_3" href="https://www.blogger.com/blogger.g?blogID=8452087976066462573#">Part 3</a><a class="button_4" href="https://www.blogger.com/blogger.g?blogID=8452087976066462573#">Part 4</a><a class="button_5" href="https://www.blogger.com/blogger.g?blogID=8452087976066462573#">Part 5</a><a class="button_6" href="https://www.blogger.com/blogger.g?blogID=8452087976066462573#">Part 6</a></span></b></div></div>

dna mcq medical rna staff nurse staffnursemcq MCQs on Structure of DNA and RNA for Staff Nurse and Medical Exams

1. A peculiar cytochrome is observed in bacteria and it can react with molecular oxygen, what is it? a. Cyt b b. Cyt c c. Cyt d d. Cyt o 2. ...

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MCQs on Sterilization, Culture Media and Techniques for Staff Nurse and Medical Exams

<div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEh0ZMZsw919c-NTtAxTEWdsgsm08QND2grX4Rb3wnoB2unJZb_9B3M5JBDc0yXIkNBNmDUctEM9U_z9WpCCyvtCvPP1nxvAHIcAY86L-1a3P6dxlAgMBqbYg4C174AYzz5AD0S-5wFbMXJC/s1600/sterilizationW1+1.jpg" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" height="243" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEh0ZMZsw919c-NTtAxTEWdsgsm08QND2grX4Rb3wnoB2unJZb_9B3M5JBDc0yXIkNBNmDUctEM9U_z9WpCCyvtCvPP1nxvAHIcAY86L-1a3P6dxlAgMBqbYg4C174AYzz5AD0S-5wFbMXJC/s640/sterilizationW1+1.jpg" width="640" /></a></div><div class="content_1">1. The medium used in membrane filter technique was<br />a. EMB agar<br />b. EMR-Vp medium<br />c. Lactose broth<br />d. Endo agar<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />2. Lysol is a<br />a. Sterilent<br />b. Disinfectant<br />c. Antiseptic<br />d. Antifungal agent<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />3. Which of the following is a neutral stain?<br />a. Picric acid<br />b. Gmiemsa<br />c. Neutral red<br />d. Malachite green<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />4. Peptone water medium is an example for<br />a. Synthetic medium<br />b. Semisynthetic medium<br />c. Differential medium<br />d. None of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />5. The method in which the cells are frozen dehydrated is called<br />a. Pasteurization<br />b. Dessication<br />c. Disinfection<br />d. Lypophilization<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />6. The technique used to avoid all microorganisms is accomplished by<br />a. Sterlization<br />b. Disinfection<br />c. Surgical sterilization<br />d. Disinfection Sterilization<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />7. Thermal death time is<br />a. Time required to kill all cells at a given temperature<br />b. Temperature that kills all cells in a given time<br />c. Time and temperature needed to kill all cells<br />d. All of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />8. A culture medium the exact composition of which is not known was called as<br />a. Simple<br />b. Complex<br />c. Defined<br />d. Natural<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />9. Elek’s gel diffusion test is used for the detection of<br />a. Tetani toxin<br />b. Cholera toxin<br />c. Diophtheria toxin<br />d. Toxoid<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />10. Temperature required for pasteurization is<br />a. Above 150oC<br />b. Below 100oC<br />c. 110oC<br />d. None of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_2" style="display: none;">11. Separation of a single bacterial colony is calle<br />a. Isolation<br />b. Separation<br />c. Pure culturing<br />d. All of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />12. Which of the following is ionizing radiation?<br />a. U.V. rays<br />b. IR<br />c. ?-rays<br />d. None of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />13. Which of the following induces dimerisation of thymine?<br />a. X-rays<br />b. U.V. rays<br />c. ã-rays<br />d. None of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />14. When food material are preserved at a temperature just above freezing temperature, the process is called.<br />a. Freezing<br />b. Pasteurisation<br />c. Chilling<br />d. Frosting<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />15. Which of the following method of sterilization has no effect on spores?<br />a. Drying<br />b. Hot air oven<br />c. Autoclave<br />d. None of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />16. Treponema pallidum can be best indentified using<br />a. Fluorescence microscope<br />b. Bright field microscope<br />c. Dark field microscope<br />d. Flourescence microscope<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />17. Autoclaving is carried at<br />a. Dry heat<br />b. Atmospheric pressure<br />c. 120oC<br />d. All of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />18. Temperature in pasteurization is<br />a. 62.8oC<br />b. 35.7oC<br />c. 68.2oC<br />d. 60.8oC<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />19. The bacterial culture prepared by pure culture method is<br />a. Inoculum<br />b. Suspension<br />c. Dilution<br />d. None of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />20. Algae are rich in<br />a. Carbohydrates<br />b. Proteins<br />c. Vitamins<br />d. All of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_3" style="display: none;">21. L-Lysine is produced from<br />a. Corynebacterium glutamicum<br />b. Clostridium botulinum<br />c. Mycobacterium sps<br />d. Pseudomonas<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />22. The orderly increase in the quantity of all of the cellular components is known as<br />a. Reproduction<br />b. Growth<br />c. Binary fission<br />d. None of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />23. Theobacillus thio oxidans grow at pH<br />a. 7.0<br />b. 1.0<br />c. 6.0<br />d. 9.5<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />24. Slow freezing requires the conditions<br />a. 0oC to 15oC for 15 min.<br />b. – 6 oC to – 10oC for 10 min.<br />c. – 15oC to 3 to 72 hrs.<br />d. None of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />25. Discontinuous heating is called<br />a. Pasteurization<br />b. Sterilization<br />c. Fermentation<br />d. Tindalisation<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />26. Isolation is<br />a. Purification of culture<br />b. Introduction of inoculum<br />c. Separation of a single colony<br />d. To grow microorganisms on surfaces<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />27. The condition required for autoclave<br />a. 121oC temp.and 15 lbs. pressure for 20 min.<br />b. 120oC temp.and 20 lbs. pressure for 30 min<br />c. 150oC temp.for 1 hr.<br />d. 130oC temp for 2 hr.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />28. Lysozyme is effective against<br />a. Gram negative bacteria<br />b. Gram positive bacteria<br />c. Protozoa<br />d. Helminthes<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />29. Blood agar medium is<br />a. Enrichment medium<br />b. Enriched medium<br />c. Selective medium<br />d. Differential medium<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />30. Infrared radiation is a method of sterilization by<br />a. Dry heat<br />b. Moist heat<br />c. Chemical method<br />d. Mechanical method<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_4" style="display: none;">31. Lyophilization means<br />a. Sterilization<br />b. Freeze-drying<br />c. Burning to ashes<br />d. Exposure to formation<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />32. Temperature used for hot air oven is<br />a. 100oC for 1 hour<br />b. 120oC for 1 hour<br />c. 160oC for 1 hour<br />d. 60oC for 1 hour<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />33. Phenol co-efficient indicates<br />a. Efficiency of a disinfectant<br />b. Dilution of a disinfectant<br />c. Purity of a disinfectant<br />d. Quantity of a disinfectant<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />34. This is an agar plate method and is commonly used for estimation of the number of bacteria in milk.<br />a. Standard Plate Count (SPC)<br />b. Spread plate<br />c. Lawn culture<br />d. Roll tube method<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />35. Agar is obtained form<br />a. Brown algae<br />b. Red algae<br />c. Green algae<br />d. Blue-green algae<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />36. A gram positive organism which produces swarming on culture medium is<br />a. Salmonella<br />b. Clostridium<br />c. Staphylococci<br />d. Proteus<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />37. Enhancement of virulence in bacteria is known as<br />a. Pathogenicity<br />b. Attenuation<br />c. Exaltation<br />d. Toxigenicity<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />38. For effective sterilization in an autoclave the temperature obtained is<br />a. 50oC<br />b. 100oC<br />c. 120oC<br />d. 180oC<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />39. Spores are killed by<br />a. 70% alcohol<br />b. Glutaraldehyde<br />c. Autoclaving<br />d. Both b and c<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />40. Glassware are sterilized by<br />a. Autoclaving<br />b. Hot air over<br />c. Incineration<br />d. None of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_5" style="display: none;">41. Tyndallisation was proposed by<br />a. Tyndall<br />b. Pasteur<br />c. Koch<br />d. Jenner<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />42. Viruses can be cultivated in<br />a. Lab media<br />b. Broth<br />c. Living cells<br />d. None of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />43. By pasteurization<br />a. All the microorganisms can be removed<br />b. Only pathogenic forms can be removed<br />c. Only non-pathogenic forms can be removed<br />d. All of these are correct<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />44. The temperature required for pasteurization is<br />a. Above 100oC<br />b. Below 100oC<br />c. 100oC<br />d. None of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />45. In the medium other than nutrients, if any substance is used in excess, that medium is<br />a. Enriched medium<br />b. Special medium<br />c. Enrichment medium<br />d. None of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />46. Example for indicator medium is<br />a. Nutrient Agar<br />b. Nutrient broth<br />c. Wilson and Blair<br />d. Czapeck-dox medium<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />47. Example of Anaerobic medium is<br />a. Robertson cooked-meat medium<br />b. Nutrient agar<br />c. Nutrient broth<br />d. Mac-Conkey’s agar<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />48. The differentiate lactose and non-lactose fermentors, the medium used is<br />a. Wilson & lair<br />b. Blood Agar<br />c. Tetra thionate broth<br />d. Mac-Conkey’s Agar<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />49. Best method for getting pure culture is<br />a. Streak-plate<br />b. Agar slant<br />c. Both a & b<br />d. None of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />50. To transfer cultures from one place to another, the device used is<br />a. Slant<br />b. Needle<br />c. Inoculation loop<br />d. Autoclave<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_6" style="display: none;">51. The bacterial culture prepared by pure culture is<br />a. Inoculum<br />b. Suspension<br />c. Dilution<br />d. None of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />52. Separation of a single colony is<br />a. Pure-culturing<br />b. Isolation<br />c. Separation<br />d. Both a and b<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />53. Growth period of the culture is<br />a. Inoculation<br />b. Incubation<br />c. Incineration<br />d. Isolation<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />54. At the temperature 160oC for one hour, complete sterilization occurs in<br />a. Autoclave<br />b. Hot air oven<br />c. Laminar flow<br />d. Incubator<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />55. In autoclave, the principle involved is<br />a. Dry heat<br />b. Moist heat<br />c. Steam under pressur<br />d. Both b and c<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />56. The spores of th bacteria which can withstand the moist heat effect also<br />a. Bacillus subtilis<br />b. Coxiella burnetti<br />c. Bacillus stearothermophilus<br />d. Pseudomonas<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />57. Factors on which disinfectivity of a disinfectant depends<br />a. Concentration of the substance<br />b. Time of action<br />c. pH of the medium and temperature suitable for the chemical<br />d. All of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />58. Aldehydes, which are most powerful disinfectants<br />a. Formaldehyde<br />b. Acetaldehyde<br />c. Glutamal aldehyde<br />d. Both a and c<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />59. Accridine dyes are more effective against<br />a. Gram positive<br />b. Gram negative<br />c. Mycoplasmas<br />d. Rickttsiae<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />60. The sterilizing agent is<br />a. Ethelene oxide<br />b. Oxygen<br />c. Nitrogen<br />d. Carbon tetrachloride<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_7" style="display: none;">61. Salts of heavy metals used as disinfectants are<br />a. Thiomersal<br />b. Phenyl mercury nitrate<br />c. Mercurochrome<br />d. All of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />62. Cultures are prepared by penetrating the inoculation loop with suspension into the medium, they are<br />a. Stock cultures<br />b. Stabcultures<br />c. Sub-cultures<br />d. None of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />63. The principle involved in the streak plate method is<br />a. Separation<br />b. Streaking<br />c. Isolation<br />d. Dilution<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />64. Culture media for fungi are<br />a. Potato dextrose agar (PDA)<br />b. Sabouraud’s agar<br />c. Czapekdox agar<br />d. All of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />65. Spores of actinomycetes are very sensitive, killed at room temperature of<br />a. 52oC for 30 min.<br />b. 65oC for 30 min.<br />c. 70oC for 30 min.<br />d. 43oC for 30 min.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />66. The term that is used for the bacteria which can withstand pasteurization but does not grow at higher temperatures<br />a. Thermophiles<br />b. Extreme thermophiles<br />c. Thermoduric<br />d. Facultative thermophiles<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />67. A common laboratory method of cultivating anaerobic micro-organisms is<br />a. Gas pack system<br />b. Brewer jar system<br />c. Pyrogallic acid over the cotton<br />d. None of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />68. Alkaliphiles grow at pH value between<br />a. 1 to 6<br />b. 6 to 9<br />c. 1 to 11<br />d. 7 to 12<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />69. The micro-organisms grow at high salinity are<br />a. Osmophiles<br />b. Halophiles<br />c. Both a and b<br />d. None of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />70. Non-lactose fermenting colonies seen on Mac Conkey’s medium are<br />a. Salmonella typhi<br />b. Escherichia coli<br />c. Klebsiella pneumoniae<br />d. Shigella shigae<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_8" style="display: none;">71. Wilson and Blair medium is used for isolation of<br />a. Staphylococci<br />b. Salmonella typhosa<br />c. Vibrio cholerae<br />d. Shigella shigae<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />72. Laboratory diagnosis of enteric fever is based on<br />a. Blood culture<br />b. Urine and stool culture<br />c. Widal test<br />d. All of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />73. Shigella was first isolated by<br />a. Shiga<br />b. Schmitz<br />c. Sonnei<br />d. Robert Koch<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />74. Which of the following are gas producing Salmonella?<br />a. S.typhi<br />b. S.enteritidis<br />c. S.cholerasuis<br />d. S.typhimurium<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />75. Kauffmann white scheme is used to detect<br />a. Salmonella spp.<br />b. Shigella spp.<br />c. E.coli<br />d. None of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />76. On Mac Conkey’s medium Esch. Coli forms<br />a. Colorless colonies<br />b. Greenish pigmentation<br />c. Pink coloured colonies<br />d. Medusa head appearance<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />77. C.diphtheriae requires<br />a. LJ medium<br />b. Mac Conkey’s medium<br />c. Potassium tellurite medium<br />d. PDA medium<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />78. Culture medium for Mycobacterium tuberculosis<br />a. L J medium<br />b. Mac Conkey’s medium<br />c. Wilson blair medium<br />d. None of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />79. Lepra bacillus is best cultured on<br />a. Armadillo’s brain<br />b. Foot pad of mice<br />c. Liver of guinea pig<br />d. Any of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />80. Culture medium for clostridia spp.<br />a. 76 Lower stein Jensen’s medium<br />b. Mac Conkey’s medium<br />c. Robertson’s cooked meat medium<br />d. None of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_9" style="display: none;">81. Clsotridium welchii is positive for<br />a. Elek’s gel precipitation test<br />b. Nagler’s test<br />c. Weil felix test<br />d. Bacitracin test<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />82. Nagler’s reaction detects<br />a. Coagulase<br />b. Hyaluronidase<br />c. Lecithinase<br />d. None of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />83. Incubation period of Cl. welchii is<br />a. 8-12 hours<br />b. 7-10 hours<br />c. 5-7 hours<br />d. 2-4 hours<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />84. The average incubation period of tetanus is<br />a. 2-3 days<br />b. 7-10 days<br />c. 14-21 days<br />d. 3-4 weeks<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />85. Salt agar is used for<br />a. Streptococcus<br />b. Staphylococcus<br />c. Vibrio<br />d. Shigella<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />86. Culture medium of Leishmania is<br />a. Sabousand’s medium<br />b. NNN medium<br />c. Wilson Blair medium<br />d. Czapek – dox medium<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />87. A simple asexual spore which develops by budding is known as<br />a. Chlamydospore<br />b. Blastospore<br />c. Arthospore<br />d. Conidia<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />88. Culture medium used for fungus is<br />a. Sabouraud’s medium<br />b. Nutrient agar<br />c. Nutrient broth<br />d. Minimal agar medium<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />89. For sterilization of fermentation equipment the method followed is<br />a. Radiation<br />b. Chemicals<br />c. Heating<br />d. All of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />90. D.pneumoniae can be cultivated in<br />a. Glucose broth<br />b. Serum broth<br />c. Agar and blood agar<br />d. Chocolate agar<br />e. All of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : E ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_10" style="display: none;">91. D.pneumoniae can be identified by<br />a. Microscopic exam<br />b. Culture of sputum/blood<br />c. Animal inoculation<br />d. All of these<br />e. None of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : E ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />92. The diagnosis of tuberculosis is carried out by<br />a. Emulator<br />b. Antiformin method<br />c. Petroff’s method<br />d. Concentration method<br />e. All of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : E ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />93. The size of the virus can be determined by<br />a. Micrography<br />b. Ultra-centrifugation at high speed<br />c. Ultra-filteration<br />d. All of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />94. Differential staining of bacteria spore is related to<br />a. Albert’s staining<br />b. Lugol’ s staining<br />c. Moller’s staining<br />d. Indian ink preparation<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />95. Electron microscope studies does not help in identifying the section of bacterial spore<br />a. Core<br />b. Spore cortex<br />c. Capsule<br />d. All of these<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /></div> <b>Go to next Page: <span style="color: #3d85c6;"></span></b><br /><div class="post-pagination"><b><span style="color: #3d85c6;"><a class="button_1" href="#">Part 1</a><a class="button_2" href="#">Part 2</a><a class="button_3" href="#">Part 3</a><a class="button_4" href="#">Part 4</a><a class="button_5" href="#">Part 5</a><a class="button_6" href="#">Part 6</a><a class="button_7" href="#">Part 7</a><a class="button_8" href="#">Part 8</a><a class="button_9" href="#">Part 9</a><a class="button_10" href="#">Part 10</a></span></b></div>

Culture Media and Techniques mcq medical staff nurse staffnursemcq Sterilization MCQs on Sterilization, Culture Media and Techniques for Staff Nurse and Medical Exams

1. The medium used in membrane filter technique was a. EMB agar b. EMR-Vp medium c. Lactose broth d. Endo agar 2. Lysol is a a. Sterilent b....

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MCQs on Skin for Staff Nurse and Medical Exams

<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on"><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEih7DHsP2sAZ37Y7En0JEzBHZCbtmRX1xsApjCrd6kYKSDR1DMdQDpCa3T4nPEVkWF_NZM4w7tS3JLh7u7OYLNrGTjgq4YwO21QxkOIqhyphenhyphenkMp5ZFEGmfpRPCTZQ57uTJPmKIkSuvxWp-rVb/s1600/o-PROBLEM-SKIN-FRONT-facebook+1.jpg" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" height="320" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEih7DHsP2sAZ37Y7En0JEzBHZCbtmRX1xsApjCrd6kYKSDR1DMdQDpCa3T4nPEVkWF_NZM4w7tS3JLh7u7OYLNrGTjgq4YwO21QxkOIqhyphenhyphenkMp5ZFEGmfpRPCTZQ57uTJPmKIkSuvxWp-rVb/s640/o-PROBLEM-SKIN-FRONT-facebook+1.jpg" width="640" /></a></div><div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">1.healthy skin requires special care to maintain its health, elasticity, vibrancy and?<br /><br />A.  color<br />B.  pallor<br />C.  dryness<br />D.  dullness<br />Ans: A <br /><br />2.what is the technical name for the study, including its structure, functions and treatment?<br /><br />A.  etiology<br />B.  anatomy<br />C.  pathology<br />D.  dermatology<br />Ans: D <br /><br />3.the outermost layer of the skin is called the ?<br /><br />A.  corium<br />B.  dermis<br />C.  adipose<br />D.  epidermis<br />Ans: D <br /><br />4.which of the following layers of skin does not contain and blood vessels?<br /><br />A.  cutis<br />B.  dermis<br />C.  corium<br />D.  epidermis<br />Ans: D <br /><br />5.what is another name for the stratum germinativum?<br /><br />A.  epidermis<br />B.  dermal layer<br />C.  stratum lucidum<br />D.  basal layer or stratum basale<br />Ans: D <br /><br />6.Where does mitosis (cell division) or replacment of the skin take place?<br /><br />A.  stratum lucidum<br />B.  stratum corneum<br />C.  stratum granulosm<br />D.  statum greminativum<br />Ans: D <br /><br />7.the stratum germinativm and what other layer of skin contain melanin?<br /><br />A.  dermis<br />B.  subcutaneous<br />C.  stratum corneum<br />D.  stratum spinosum<br />Ans: D <br /><br />8.on the human body, the thickest skin is located on the:<br /><br />A.  thighs<br />B.  buttocks<br />C.  abdomen<br />D.  palms and soles<br />Ans: D<br /><br />9.The layer of the epidermis that sheds keratin cells that are constantly replaced is the?<br /><br />A.  stratum lucidum<br />B.  stratum corneum<br />C.  stratum mucosum<br />D.  stratum granlosum<br />Ans: B <br /><br />10.what quality is notable about the stratum corneum?<br /><br />A.  it is the thinnest layer of skin<br />B.  it is the weakest layer of skin<br />C.  it is the toughest layer of skin<br />D.  it is lowermost layer of skin<br />Ans: C<br /><br />11.the stratum corneum is composed of ?<br /><br />A.  melanin<br />B.  granules<br />C.  keratin cells<br />D.  squamous cells<br />Ans: C<br /><br />12.which layer is the top, or uppermost, layer of the epidermis?<br /><br />A.  dermis<br />B.  stratum corneum<br />C.  stratum mucosum<br />D.  stratum granulosum<br />Ans: B<br /><br />13.where are the blood vessels found that supply the skin?<br /><br />A.  dermis<br />B.  epidermis<br />C.  stratum lucidum<br />D.  stratum corneum<br />Ans: A<br /><br />14.sudoriferous glands, sebaceous glands sensory nerve endings, blood vessels, arrector pili muscles and a major  portion of each hair follicle are found in the ?<br />A.  dermis<br />B.  epidermis<br />C.  stratum corneum<br />D.  startum spinosum<br />Ans: A<br /><br />15.what part of the skin is often referred to as "true skin"<br /><br />A.  dermis<br />B.  epidermis<br />C.  stratum corneum<br />D.  stratum spinosum<br />Ans: A<br /><br />16.which layer of the skin produces collgen protein and elastin fibers to help give the skin its elasicity and pliability?<br /><br />A.  dermis<br />B.  epidermis<br />C.  stratum lucidum<br />D.  stratum graninativum<br />Ans: A<br /><br />17.the deterioration of collagen and elastiin fibers during fibers during the aging process causes?<br /><br />A.  rosacea<br />B.  freckles<br />C.  macules<br />D.  wrinkles<br />Ans: D<br /><br />18.what is major function of the sudoriferous gland?<br /><br />A.  gives skin texture<br />B.  gives skin a healthy color<br />C.  protects the skin's elasticity<br />D.  helps to regulate body temperature<br />Ans: D<br /><br />19.sweat or perspitation is secreted by what gland?<br /><br />A.  adrenal<br />B.  endocrine<br />C.  sebaceous<br />D.  sudoriferous<br />Ans: D<br /><br />20.the small openings onto the skin from the sudoriferous glands are called ?<br /><br />A.  ducts<br />B.  pores<br />C.  glands<br />D.  follicles<br />Ans: B<br /><br />21.the sudoriferous (sweat) glands are referred to as:<br /><br />A.  nervous system<br />B.  muscular system<br />C.  endocrine system<br />D.  circulatory system<br />Ans: A<br /><br />22.sudoriferous and sebaceous glands are referred to as ?<br /><br />A.  pores<br />B.  follicles<br />C.  duct glands<br />D.  ductless glands<br />Ans: C<br /><br />23.control and regilation of body temperature by the sudoriferous glands help maintan the body temperture at?<br /><br />A.  78.0 f or 29.4 c<br />B.  94.0 f or 87.9 c<br />C.  88.6 f or 37 c<br />D.  98.6 f or 37 c<br />Ans: D<br /><br />24.the greatest concentration of sudorferous glands is found on the?<br /><br />A.  arms<br />B.  eyelids<br />C.  midsection of the body<br />D.  palms, soles,scalp and forehead and underarms<br />Ans: D<br /><br />25.the sebaceous gland produces:<br /><br />A.  melanin<br />B.  dandruff<br />C.  sebum (oil.<br />D.  perspiration<br />Ans: C<br /><br />26. on what area of the body would you not find any sebaceous glands?<br /><br />A.  the face<br />B.  in the groin area<br />C.  on the arms and legs<br />D.  on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet<br />Ans: D<br /><br />27.what is the function of sebum?<br /><br />A.  carry melanin<br />B.  produce sweat<br />C.  give skin elasticity<br />D.  keep skin from drying and chapping<br />Ans: D<br /><br />28.the papillary canal take oil (sebum) to the?<br /><br />A.  nerve<br />B.  keratin<br />C.  blood vessels<br />D.  surface of the skin<br />Ans: D<br /><br />29.where is the layer of skin called the subcutaneous layer located ?<br /><br />A.  above the cuticle<br />B.  below the dermis<br />C.  above the epidermis<br />D.  below the adipose tissue<br />Ans: B<br /><br />30.the subcutaneous tissue of skin is made up of mostly?<br /><br />A.  keratin<br />B.  muscle<br />C.  melanin<br />D.  fatty cells<br />Ans: D<br /><br />31.what layer of the skin contains large blood vessels that transport nouishment to skin and nerve ?<br /><br />A.  epidermis<br />B.  melanin layer<br />C.  spinum spinosum<br />D.  subcutaneous layer<br />Ans: D<br /><br />32.what factor would cause a reaction in sensory nerve fibers?<br /><br />A.  fear<br />B.  light<br />C.  sound<br />D.  cold temperatures<br />Ans: D<br /><br />33.what tans the skin to help protect it from harmful ultraviolet rays?<br /><br />A.  sebum<br />B.  melanin<br />C.  the acid mantle<br />D.  the subcutaneous layer<br />Ans: B<br /><br />34.light skin and dark skin differ in the ?<br /><br />A.  number of melanocytes the contain<br />B.  rate and amount of melanin produced<br />C.  number of nerve endings the contain<br />D.  number of epidermal cells they contain<br />Ans: B<br /><br />35.almost 90% of the skin's wrinkles are caused by ?<br /><br />A.  exposure to the sun<br />B.  exposure to pollutants<br />C.  excessive use of astringents<br />D.  excessive exposure to fluorescent lights<br />Ans: A<br /><br />36.on the human body, the thinnest skin is located on the ?<br /><br />A.  chin<br />B.  eyelids<br />C.  soles of the feet<br />D.  skull just behind the ears<br />Ans: B<br /><br />37.healthy skin's pH level of 4.5 to 5.5 is?<br /><br />A.  highly acidic<br />B.  acid-balanced<br />C.  highly alkaline<br />D.  slightly alkaline<br />Ans: B<br /><br />38.how should a salon profession react if the client has a skin disease?<br /><br />A.  prescribe proper treatment<br />B.  suggest home remedies to client<br />C.  perform the service while wearing gloves<br />D.  refer client to a physician or dermatologist<br />Ans: D<br /><br />39.chronic is the term used to identify condition that are ?<br /><br />A.  visible<br />B.  brief and severe<br />C.  frequent and habitual<br />D.  influenced by weather<br />Ans: C<br /><br />40.the term used to identify conditions that are brief and severe is ?<br /><br />A.  acute<br />B.  chronic<br />C.  objective<br />D.  subjective<br />Ans: A<br /><br />41.a disease that spreads by personal contact is known as?<br /><br />A.  systemic<br />B.  congenital<br />C.  contagious<br />D.  occupational<br />Ans: C<br /><br />42.a disease influenced by weather is referred to as?<br /><br />A.  serial<br />B.  rational<br />C.  seasonal<br />D.  inflammable<br />Ans: C<br /><br />43.what is the technical name for the study of the cause of diseases?<br /><br />A.  etiology<br />B.  anatomy<br />C.  pathology<br />D.  dermatology<br />Ans: A<br /><br />44.what is the technical term for the study of deseases?<br /><br />A.  eitology<br />B.  anatomy<br />C.  pathology<br />D.  dermatology<br />Ans: C<br /><br />45.indicating a medical opinion of a future condition of illness is known as a(an.?<br /><br />A.  analysis<br />B.  diagnosis<br />C.  prognosis<br />D.  recognition<br />Ans: c<br /><br />46.an alleegic reaction to cosmetics or chemicals which salon professionals may be susceptible to is called?<br /><br />A.  papules<br />B.  chloasma<br />C.  lenigines<br />D.  sermatitis venenata<br />Ans: D<br /><br />47.an example of a subjective symptom would be?<br /><br />A.  itching<br />B.  swelling<br />C.  redness<br />D.  discharge<br />Ans: A<br /><br />48.abnormal changes in the structure of organs or tissues are called primary and secondary?<br /><br />A.  wheal<br />B.  fissure<br />C.  lesions<br />D.  infection<br />Ans: C<br /><br />49.a freckle is an example of which type of primary skin lesion?<br /><br />A.  lentigo<br />B.  papule<br />C.  macule<br />D.  leukoderma<br />Ans: C<br /><br />50.a papule is an example of a ?<br /><br />A.  tertiary lesion<br />B.  primary skin lesion<br />C.  subjective symptom<br />D.  secondary skin lesion<br />Ans: B<br /><br />51.vesicles can be produced by which of the following conditions?<br /><br />A.  callus<br />B.  verrucas<br />C.  poison ivy<br />D.  dry, scaly skin<br />Ans: C<br /><br />52.herpes simplex is the technical term for?<br /><br />A.  acne<br />B.  eczema<br />C.  psoriasis<br />D.  fever blisters<br />Ans: D<br /><br />53.a solid mass in the skin that could be soft or hard, fixed or freely movable and may be elevated or deep iscalled a ?<br /><br />A.  crust<br />B.  callus<br />C.  tumor<br />D.  wheal<br />Ans: C<br /><br />54.a cyst is defined by which of the following description?<br /><br />A.  oozing sore<br />B.  wheal lesions<br />C.  crack in the skin<br />D.  abnormal membranous sac<br />Ans: D<br /><br />55.a secondary lesion appearing as round, dry patches of skin covered with rough, silvert scales is called?<br /><br />A.  acne<br />B.  eczema<br />C.  psoriasis<br />D.  herpes simplex<br />Ans: C<br /><br />56.which of the following skin lesions often occurs when skin loses its flesibility due to exposure to wind, cold, water, etc and cracks in the skin appear?<br /><br />A.  stain<br />B.  tumor<br />C.  fissure<br />D.  papule<br />Ans: C<br /><br />57.the lesion found following the healing of an injury is called a(n.?<br /><br />A.  vitiligo<br />B.  fissure<br />C.  scar<br />D.  excoriation<br />Ans: C<br /><br />58.which of the following terms is another name for a keratoma?<br /><br />A.  a wart<br />B.  a callus<br />C.  a tumor<br />D.  a birthmark<br />Ans: B<br /><br />59.what may happen to the skin if an area is subject to pressure or friction over a long period of time?<br /><br />A.  it may wear thin<br />B.  it may become shiny<br />C.  it may scale and flake<br />D.  it may become callused<br />Ans: D<br /><br />60.verruca is a name given to a variety of?<br /><br />A.  warts<br />B.  ulcers<br />C.  fissures<br />D.  skin tags<br />Ans: A<br /><br />61.melanotic sarcoma is a skin cancer that begins with?<br /><br />A.  a mole<br />B.  an ulcer<br />C.  lentigines<br />D.  miliaria rubra<br />Ans: A<br /><br />62.what is the technical name for liver spots?<br /><br />A.  rubra<br />B.  crustacea<br />C.  chloasma<br />D.  leukoderma<br />Ans: C<br /><br />63.what is another name for a stain in the skin caused by the dilation of the small blood vessels in the skin, also known as a birthmark?<br /><br />A.  scar<br />B.  callus<br />C.  nevus<br />D.  verruca<br />Ans: C<br /><br />64.comedone is the technical name for?<br /><br />A.  nevus<br />B.  macule<br />C.  blackhead<br />D.  whitehead<br />Ans: C<br /><br />65.what is the techical term for a decrease in activity of melanocytes?<br /><br />A.  acne<br />B.  verruca<br />C.  leukoderma<br />D.  melanoderma<br />Ans: C<br /><br />66.accumulations of hardened sebum beneath the skin are called whiteheads or:<br /><br />A.  acne<br />B.  milia<br />C.  rosacea<br />D.  comedones<br />Ans: B<br /><br />67.acne most often occurs on the ?<br /><br />A.  legs, hips, and arms<br />B.  face, back and chest<br />C.  fingers, toes and soles<br />D.  ankles, knees and elbow<br />Ans: B<br /><br />68.ance can be found in two stages, acne simplex and:<br /><br />A.  rosacea<br />B.  asteatosis<br />C.  acne vulagarsis<br />D.  deep-seated acne<br />Ans: C<br /><br />69.what is the professinal action to take when a client with rosacea requests a facial service with you?<br /><br />A.  refer clients to another salon<br />B.  avoid the issue of rosacea<br />C.  proceed with the service but wear protective gloves<br />D.  proceed with the service with approval of the client's physician<br />Ans: D<br /><br />70.what is a condition called that is characterized by dry, scaly skin caused by a decreased production of sebum?<br /><br />A.  rosacea<br />B.  steatoma<br />C.  asteatosis<br />D.  seborrhea<br />Ans: C<br /><br />71.which disorder is caused by excessive secretion of the sebaceous glands?<br /><br />A.  millia<br />B.  asteatosis<br />C.  seborrhea<br />D.  bromidrosis<br />Ans: C<br /><br />72.where does a steatoma most often appear?<br /><br />A.  on the arms, legs and chest<br />B.  on the face, feet and hands<br />C.  on the fingers, feet and toes<br />D.  on the scalp, neck and back<br />Ans: D<br /><br />73.what is the definition of bromidrosis?<br /><br />A.  excessive sebum<br />B.  the lack of sebum<br />C.  the lack of perspiration<br />D.  foul-smelling perspiration<br />Ans: D<br /><br />74.the lack of perspiration caused by fever or disease is called?<br /><br />A.  anhidrosis<br />B.  osmidrosis<br />C.  bromidrosis<br />D.  hyperhidrosis<br />Ans: A<br /><br />75.what is the disorder called that is an overproduction of perspiration caused by excessive heat or general body  weakness?<br /><br />A.  osmidrosis<br />B.  anhidrosis<br />C.  bromidrosis<br />D.  hyperhidosis<br />Ans: D<br /><br />76.which of the following terms does NOT describe a guideline that can indicate skin cancer?<br /><br />A.  color<br />B.  border<br />C.  texture<br />D.  asymmetry<br />Ans: C<br /><br />77.products that work tofurther cleanse the skin and return it to its normal pH include?<br /><br />A.  oils<br />B.  massage creams<br />C.  manual exfoliants<br />D.  astringents and tonic lotions<br />Ans: D<br /><br />78.a term that is used to describe moisturizing is ?<br /><br />A.  oiling<br />B.  toning<br />C.  hydrating<br />D.  cleansing<br />Ans: C<br /><br />79.applying pressure to motor points will have which of the following effects?<br /><br />A.  inflame and irrtate muscles<br />B.  increase secretion<br />C.  decrease production<br />D.  soothe and stimulate nerves and muscles<br />Ans: D<br /><br />80.effleurage is a massage movement that involves a:<br /><br />A.  circular movement with no gliding<br />B.  light tapping or slapping movement<br />C.  light, gentle stroking or circular movement<br />D.  light or heavy kneading and rolling of muscles<br />Ans: C<br /><br />81.the gentle massage movement  that often begins and ends a massage treatment is ?<br /><br />A.  vibration<br />B.  effleurage<br />C.  petrissage<br />D.  tapotement<br />Ans: B<br /><br />82.the massage manipulation that consists of heavy kneading and rolling of the muscles is called:<br /><br />A.  friction<br />B.  vibration<br />C.  petrissage<br />D.  tapotement<br />Ans: C<br /><br />83.which massage manipulation deeply stimules the muscles, nerves and skin glands?<br /><br />A.  friction<br />B.  vibration<br />C.  petrissage<br />D.  tapotement<br />  Ans: C<br /><br />84.the massage movement that should not be used when the client needs soothing is?<br /><br />A.  gliding<br />B.  stroking<br />C.  effleurage<br />D.  tapotement<br />Ans: D<br /><div><br /></div></div></div>

dermatology mcq medical skin staff nurse staffnursemcq MCQs on Skin for Staff Nurse and Medical Exams

1.healthy skin requires special care to maintain its health, elasticity, vibrancy and? A.  color B.  pallor C.  dryness D.  dullness Ans: A ...

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MCQs on Respiratory System for Staff Nurse and Medical Exams

<div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjjWBzzNiH6l8ZcZn6YtFJJh8Ejh7fwAUFPi7yP-o53b0PAUH5IYTuUDzok3JDR6kSwQkRqjo7TbS9-zTWA-FM3EjUgF1SqRGf8pzxt9dpfrZpx4NDigkKpNMupQX69LPVWzXuPK2UiiVc2/s1600/respiratory.jpg" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" height="324" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEjjWBzzNiH6l8ZcZn6YtFJJh8Ejh7fwAUFPi7yP-o53b0PAUH5IYTuUDzok3JDR6kSwQkRqjo7TbS9-zTWA-FM3EjUgF1SqRGf8pzxt9dpfrZpx4NDigkKpNMupQX69LPVWzXuPK2UiiVc2/s640/respiratory.jpg" width="640" /></a></div><div class="content_1">1- The following are recognized features of Pancoast's tumour except:<br />1) ipsilateral Horner's syndrome<br />2) wasting of the dorsal interossei<br />3) pain in the arm radiating to the fourth and fifth fingers<br />4) erosion of the first rib<br />5) weakness of abduction at the shoulder<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />2- Which of the following is true concerning Whooping cough (pertussis)?<br />1) is a greater threat to children during the second 6 months of life, after maternal antibody has declined, than during the first 6 months<br />2) may lead to hemiplegia<br />3) is characteristically associated with a polymorph leucocytosis<br />4) is associated with convulsions less frequently than is the case with other febrile conditions<br />5) rapidly resolves with antibiotic treatment<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />3- A 19-year-old female developed pleural effusions, ascites and ankle swelling. Her blood pressure was 112/76 mmHg.<br />Investigations revealed:<br /><br /><ul style="text-align: left;"><li>serum alanine transferase 17 U/L (5 - 15)</li><li>serum total bilirubin 17 umol/L (1 - 22)</li><li>serum albumin 21 g/L (34 - 94)</li><li>serum total cholesterol 9.8 mmol/L (<5.2)</li></ul><br />What is the next most appropriate investigation?<br />1) Antinuclear antibody<br />2) Pregnancy test<br />3) Prothrombin time<br />4) Serum protein electrophoresis<br />5) Urinary protein estimation<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />4- A 51 year old businessman complains of dyspnoea on exertion. He recently returned from a business trip to the USA. He has distant heart sounds on auscultation of the chest. A chest radiograph reveals that there is a thin rim of calcification surrounding the cardiac outline. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for these findings?<br />1) Uraemia<br />2) Tuberculosis<br />3) Group B coxsackie virus<br />4) Sarcoidosis<br />5) Metastatic carcinoma<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />5- A 48-year-old woman presented with shortness of breath, cough with heavy sputum production, and a low grade fever. She has smoked 20 cigarettes per day for 30 years. Her arterial blood gases revealed pH of 7.4, PaCO2 of 45 and a PaO2 of 78. What is the most likely diagnosis?<br />1) Bronchial asthma<br />2) Chronic bronchitis<br />3) Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis<br />4) Paraneoplastic syndrome<br />5) Pulmonary embolism<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />6- A 49-year-old man with a long history of alcoholism presents with cough, haemoptysis and pleuritic chest pain. He has had night sweats and 10 kg weight loss in the last three months. On chest X-ray tgere is a subtle nodular pattern throughout the lung. He underwent a transbronchial biopsy which showed multinucleated giant cells, epithelioid cells and necrotic debris. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?<br />1) Aspergillosis<br />2) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia<br />3) Small cell carcinoma<br />4) Squamous cell carcinoma<br />5) Tuberculosis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />7- A 55 year old man who has a 25 year pack history of smoking presents with productive cough with mucoid sputum of 2 year duration. On examination he has scattered ronchi and wheezing. The likeliest diagnosis is :<br />1) Bronchial Asthma<br />2) Bronchiectasis<br />3) Chronic Bronchitis<br />4) Pneumonitis<br />5) Fibrosing Alveolitis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />8- A 67 year old who is known to suffer from severe chronic bronchitis is admitted from home with an acute exacerbation. Which of the following is true?<br />1) An Acidosis with a low bicarbonate would be expected<br />2) Extensor plantar responses feature<br />3) Gentamicin would be a reasonable initial treatment until cultures are available<br />4) Oxygen therapy should aim to increase the pO2 to above 8kPa (60mmHg)<br />5) Peripheral oedema indicates coexisting heart failure<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />9- A 65-year-old woman, has smoked 50 cigarettes a day for 40 years. She has had increasing dyspnoea for the several years, but no cough. A Chest X-ray shows increased lung size along with flattening of the diaphragms, consistent with emphysema. Over the next several years she develops worsening peripheral oedema. Her vital signs show T° 36.7 C, P 80, RR 15, and BP 120/80 mm Hg. Which of the following cardiac findings is most likely to be present?<br />1) Mitral valve stenosis<br />2) Constrictive pericarditis<br />3) Right ventricular hypertrophy<br />4) Left ventricular aneurysmm<br />5) Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />10 -In which of the following cases of lung cancer would surgical resection of the tumour be a reasonable therapeutic option?<br />1) A 56-year-old woman with an adenocarcinoma of the right lung. CT scan shows enlarged lymph nodes in the right and left hilum. PFTs show an FEV1 of 2.25 L.<br />(55% predicted).<br />2) A 59-year-old man who is found at bronchoscopy to have a tumour in the right mainstem bronchus extending to within 1 cm of the carina. Pulmonary Function<br />Tests (PFTs) show an FEV1 of 2.1 liters (65% of predicted normal).<br />3) A 62-year-old lady with a small peripheral mass who has elevated liver enzymes and a computed tomography (CT) scan showing probable metastatic deposits in<br />the liver PFTs show an FEV1 of 3.5 Liters (80% of predicted normal).<br />4) A 70-year-old man with a right lower lobe tumour 2 cm in diameter with no evidence of regional adenopathy or distant spread of disease. PFTs show an FEV1<br />of 0.8 Liters (28% predicted).<br />5) A 71-year-old man with a 3 cm tumor obstructing the right lower lobe bronchus.<br />PFTs show an FEV1 of 1.98 L. (43% predicted).<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_2" style="display: none;">11- A 20-year-old male student is assessed for shortness of breath that occurs whilst running. He has no other symptoms and does not smoke. Examination, full blood count, and chest X-ray are normal. Which of the following is most likely to be helpful in confirming the suspected diagnosis?<br />1) Arterial blood gas studies before and after exercise<br />2) Determination of lung volumes and diffusing capacity<br />3) Measurement of venous blood lactate before and after exercise<br />4) Spirometry before and after administration of bronchodilators<br />5) Spirometry before and after exercise<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />12- A 40-year-old worker presents with wheezing and breathlessness which seem to improve over weekends and holiday periods when he is not working. What is he most likely to be exposed to at work?<br />1) Platinum salts<br />2) Avian bloom<br />3) Aspergillus clavatus<br />4) Work in the Silver industry<br />5) Exposure to spores of Actinomyces<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />13- The pulmonary vascular system is different from the systemic circulation in that the pulmonary system demonstrates which of the following?<br />1) High pressures, high flow rates, highly compliant vessels<br />2) High pressures, high flow rates, low compliance vessels<br />3) Low pressures, high flow rates, high compliance vessels<br />4) Low pressures, low flow rates, high compliance vessels<br />5) Low pressures, low flow rates, low compliance vessels<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />14- A 60 year old man with ankylosing spondylitis presents with cough, weight loss and tiredness. His CXR shows longstanding upper lobe fibrosis. Three sputum tests stain positive for Acid fast bacilli but are consistently negative for Mycobacterium tuberculosis on culture. Which of the following is the most likely cause?<br />1) Mycobacterium avium intracellulare complex<br />2) Micropolyspora faeni<br />3) Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis<br />4) Sarcoidosis<br />5) Tuberculosis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />15- Which of the following is a recognised cause of a phrenic nerve palsy?<br />1) Aortic aneurysm<br />2) Dermoid<br />3) Ganglioneuroma<br />4) Pericardial cyst<br />5) Sarcoidosis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />16- Which of the following statements is true of the pulmonary function test's vital capacity (VC)?<br />1) Vital capacity cannot be measured from spirometry alone<br />2) Vital capacity is increased in emphysema and reduced in interstitial fibrosis<br />3) Vital capacity is the maximal amount of air which can be exhaled after maximal inspiration<br />4) Vital capacity is the sum of tidal volume (VT) and inspiratory capacity (IC)<br />5) Vital capacity, when reduced, is a specific indication of restrictive lung disease<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />17- A 24 year old asthmatic female is admitted with acute severe asthma. Which of the following statements regarding the diagnosis is correct?<br />1) Agitation should be managed with a benzodiazepine<br />2) A high inspired Oxygen concentration should be used routinely<br />3) Inhaled salmeterol is indicated as first line therapy<br />4) Normal arterial pCO2 is reassuring<br />5) Pulsus paradoxus is a reliable sign of severity<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />18- Recognised associations. Which of the following is correct?<br />1) pneumoconiosis and clubbing<br />2) lung carcinoids and pleural effusion<br />3) pulmonary embolus and left bundle branch block<br />4) pulmonary fibrosis and hypercapnia<br />5) bronchopulmonary aspergillosis and wheezing<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />19- dry cough. Her chest X-ray shows an area of dense pneumonia-like consolidation in the right lower lobe. A course of antibiotics did not improve her symptoms or chest X-ray. Bronchioalveolar lavage (BAL) retrieved 'atypical' cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?<br />1) Bronchioloalveolar cell carcinoma<br />2) Mycoplasma pneumonia<br />3) Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis<br />4) Pulmonary embolism with infarction<br />5) Sarcoidosis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />20- Randomised controlled trials have shown that long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) reduces mortality in:<br />1) cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis<br />2) cor pulmonale due to chronic airflow obstruction<br />3) asthma<br />4) cystic fibrosis<br />5) pulmonary sarcoidosis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_3" style="display: none;">21- A 65-year-old woman, a heavy smoker for many years, has had worsening dyspnoea for the past 5 years, without a significant cough. A chest X-ray shows increased lung size along with flattening of the diaphragms, consistent with emphysema. Over the next several years she develops worsening peripheral oedema. BP 115/70 mmHg. Which of the following cardiac findings is most likely to be present?<br />1) Constrictive pericarditis<br />2) Left ventricular aneurysm<br />3) Mitral valve stenosis<br />4) Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis<br />5) Right ventricular hypertrophy<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />22- A 45-year-old solicitor had an onset of severe, crushing, substernal chest pain while attending a football match. He collapsed on his way to the car. Bystander Cardiorespiratory Resuscitation was begun immediately and continued until arrival in Casualty where an endotracheal tube was inserted and ventilation was maintained on 100% oxygen. Investigations revealed:<br /><br /><ul style="text-align: left;"><li>pH 7.13</li><li>PaO2 560 mmHg</li><li>PaCO2 18 mmHg</li><li>Bicarbonate 5.8</li><li>SaO2 98%</li></ul><br />Based on these laboratory values, which of the following statements best describes his current pathophysiology?<br />1) He is demonstrating a primary respiratory alkalosis<br />2) He probably developed a large right to left intracardiac shunt<br />3) His anion gap is probably normal<br />4) His oxyhemoglobin curve is shifted to the left<br />5) His pulmonary artery pressure is probably elevated<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />23- Obstructive sleep apnoea characteristically associated with:<br />1) hypersomnolence<br />2) impotence<br />3) macrognathia<br />4) insomnia<br />5) polydipsia<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />24- A 26-year-old man with a history of alcohol and drug abuse was admitted with a 14 day history of fever, cough and fatigue. He was emaciated. His temperature was 39.4°C. Cervical and axillary lymphadenopathy were present. Chest X-ray revealed bilateral areas of pulmonary shadowing. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?<br />1) alcoholic cardiomyopathy<br />2) pneumococcal pneumonia<br />3) pneumocystis pneumonia<br />4) pulmonary tuberculosis<br />5) tricuspid endocarditis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />25- A 75-year-old man with squamous cell carcinoma is thought to have resectable disease. Which of the following would be a contraindication to surgery?<br />1) clubbing<br />2) FEV1 of 0.75 L<br />3) his age of 75 years<br />4) pleural effusion<br />5) Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />26- A 36 year old woman presents with dyspnoea, cough and fever. Crackles are heard on auscultation of the lungs. Circulating precipitans to Micropolyspora faeni are positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?<br />1) Malt workers' lung<br />2) Pigeon fanciers' lung<br />3) Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis<br />4) Brucellosis<br />5) Farmers' lung<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />27- A 41 year old man with a history of nasal congestion, breathlessness, cough and wheeze presents with a left foot drop. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?<br />1) Diabetes mellitus<br />2) Wegeners Granulomatosis<br />3) Churg Staus Syndrome<br />4) Pulmonary eosinophilia<br />5) Polyarteritsis Nodosa<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />28- In asbestos related disorders which of the following statements is correct?<br />1) basal fibrotic shadowing on CXR suggests coincidental idiopathic fibrosing alveolitis<br />2) increased incidence of primary lung cancer<br />3) pleural effusion develops more than 20 years after causative asbestos exposure<br />4) pleural plaques are recognized precursors of mesothelioma<br />5) the risk of malignant mesothelioma is greatly increased in smokers compared with non-smokers<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />29- A 60 year old man was admitted with community-acquired pneumonia and deteriorated over the next few hours. Which one of the following indicates a poor prognosis?<br />1) A total white cell count of 17 x 109/L (4-11)<br />2) Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg<br />3) Respiratory rate of 35 breaths/min<br />4) Rigors<br />5) Temperature of 39oC<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />30- Which of the following statements concerning industrial lung disorders is correct?<br />1) pneumoconiosis can be diagnosed in the absence of chest X-ray abnormalities<br />2) occupational asthma occurs more frequently in atopic persons<br />3) silo fillers disease is caused by allergy to grain<br />4) widespread crepitations are typically heard in extrinsic allergic alveolitis<br />5) symptoms occur within minutes if exposure to mouldy hay in Farmer's lung<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_4" style="display: none;">31- A young child presents with respiratory distress, worsening over 2 days. Blood gases show a pH of 7.25, a PCO2 of 7.5kPa, a PO2 of 8.5kPa, and a base excess of -4. Which of the following interpretations is correct?<br />1) Results are consistent with bronchopulmonary dysplasia.<br />2) Blood gases suggest type 1 respiratory failure.<br />3) Immediate intubation is required.<br />4) Results are consistent with late severe asthma.<br />5) Bicarbonate may be necessary to correct the acidosis.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />32- A 19 year old female presents with acute breathlessness. She has had asthma for approximately 3 years and recently commenced new therapy. Which agent may be responsible for this exacerbation?<br />1) Salmeterol<br />2) Theophylline<br />3) Beclomethasone<br />4) Ipratropium bromide<br />5) Monteleukast<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />33- A 22 year old lady recently returned from a holiday in Malta was admitted with a 3 day history of fever, generalised lymphadenopathy and a macular rash over the trunk and legs. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?<br />1) Sarcoidosis<br />2) Tuberulosis<br />3) Familial Mediterranean Fever<br />4) Infectious Mononucleosis<br />5) Actinomycosis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />34- Which of the following is a recognised treatment for complications of cystic fibrosis?<br />1) DNAase to assist in reinflating collapsed lung segments.<br />2) Rectal pull-through and anastamosis for rectal prolapse.<br />3) Pancreatic transplant for diabetes mellitus.<br />4) Nebulised tobramycin for pseudomonas colonisation of the lower respiratory tract.<br />5) Hypotonic saline drinks for hypernatraemic dehydration.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />35- Which of the following is a typical feature of Farmer's lung?<br />1) basal crackles<br />2) Eosinophilia<br />3) Haemoptysis<br />4) Increased pCO2<br />5) Positive serum paraproteins<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />36- A 28 year old man who had had tuberculosis of the mediastinal lymph nodes diagnosed two weeks previously and who had been started on chemotherapy with rifampicin, isoniazid and pyrazinamide was admitted because of the increasing dyspnoea and stridor. Chest X-ray showed compression of both main bronchi by carinal lymph node enlargement. What is the next step in management?<br />1) Start prednisolone<br />2) Mediastinoscopy and biopsy<br />3) Refer for stent insertion/tracheostomy<br />4) Refer for urgent CT scan of the mediastinum<br />5) The addition of ethambutol<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />37- A 24 year old male presents after developing a bluish discolouration of the body, lips and nails. He denies any relevant past medical history. Examination reveals a central cyanosis and a grey complexion.<br />Investigation revealed:<br /><br /><ul style="text-align: left;"><li>Haemoglobin 17.0 g/dL (13.0-18.0)</li><li>PaO2 13.0 kPa (11.3-12.6)</li><li>SaO2 (using an oximeter) 85% (>95)</li></ul><br />What is the most likely diagnosis?<br />1) Argyria<br />2) Cyanotic congenital heart disease<br />3) Haemochromatosis<br />4) Methaemoglobinaemia<br />5) Methylene blue poisoning<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />38- Which of the following is true of BCG vaccination?<br />1) is contraindicated in neonates<br />2) is a killed polysaccharide antigen vaccine<br />3) should be given to all children who have a strongly positive tuberculin test<br />4) is presently routinely offered in the UK at age 16 years<br />5) Provides protection against leprosy<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />39 -Carcinoid tumors of the lung (bronchial adenomas) originate from which of the following cell types?<br />1) Ciliated cell<br />2) Clara cell<br />3) Kulchitsky (K) cell<br />4) Mucus (goblet) cell<br />5) Type 2 Alveolar cell<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />40- A 55-year-old woman on treatment for long-standing rheumatoid arthritis has recently become dyspnoeic on mild exertion and developed a dry cough. The oxygen saturation was found to be 87% on air. The chest x-ray showed a diffuse bilateral interstitial infiltrate. An extensive infection screen was negative and her symptoms were felt to be druginduced. Which drug is most likely to have caused this adverse effect?<br />1) azathioprine<br />2) cyclosporin<br />3) hydroxychloroquine<br />4) methotrexate<br />5) sulphasalazine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_5" style="display: none;">41- The following is true about Cystic Fibrosis:<br />1) Is an autosomal dominant condition.<br />2) Is due to mutation of CFTR gene on chromosome 17<br />3) Skin test may be positive for aspergillus<br />4) Median survival rate is 10 to 15 years.<br />5) Is a cause of mental retardation.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />42- A 67-year-old man presents with a long history of cough,breathlessness on minimal exertion and ankle swelling. He smokes 30-40 cigarettes per day.<br />Investigations are as follows:<br /><br /><ul style="text-align: left;"><li>Haemoglobin 19g/dl</li><li>white blood count 7.3</li><li>PaO2 (air) 6.2kPa</li><li>PaCO2 (air) 8.9kPa</li><li>serum [H+] 44 nmol/l</li><li>serum [HCO3] 36 mmol/l</li></ul><br />What is the most likely explanation of these results?<br />1) acute respiratory acidosis<br />2) chronic respiratory acidosis<br />3) chronic respiratory alkalosis<br />4) metabolic acidosis<br />5) metabolic alkalosis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />43- Which of the following statement is true of infections with Mycobacterium tuberculosis:<br />1) non-sputum producing patients are non-infectious<br />2) a positive tuberculin test indicates active disease<br />3) lymph node positive disease requires longer treatment than pulmonary disease<br />4) in pregnant women treatment should not be given until after delivery<br />5) pyrazinamide has high activity against active extracellular organisms<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />44- In restrictive lung disease due to respiratory muscle weakness, which of the following statements is true?<br />1) Low FEV1/FVC, high RV/TLC<br />2) Low FEV1/FVC, normal TLC<br />3) Low VC, low FEV1, normal TLC, low RV/TLC<br />4) Low VC, low RV, low TLC<br />5) Low VC, low TLC, high RV/TLC<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />45- Which of the following would be the least likely finding in a patient with sarcoidosis?<br />1) Hepatic granulomas<br />2) Restrictive pulmonary function tests<br />3) Skin lesions<br />4) Uveitis<br />5) X bodies on bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) fluid<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />46- A 72-year-old lifelong smoker presents with progressive dyspnoea on exertion. He has a chronic, nonproductive cough. On examination he is thin, breathing with pursed lips, respiratory rate 25/min, with mild wheezing on chest auscultation.<br />Investigations show<br /><br /><ul style="text-align: left;"><li>FEV1 0.8 L</li><li>FVC 1.6 L</li><li>pH 7.35</li><li>paCO2 45 mmHg</li><li>paO2 55 mmHg</li></ul><br />What is the predominant mechanism of the airflow limitation in this gentleman?<br />1) Bronchospasm<br />2) Foreign body obstruction<br />3) Increased airways resistance<br />4) Loss of elastic recoil<br />5) Mucus plugging in the small airways<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />47- Which of the following statements regarding cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis is correct?<br />1) Active inflammation may be suggested by a CT scan<br />2) peak flow rate is a good guide to severity<br />3) 80 per cent of patients iniiration<br />4) Reduced cardiac output<br />5) Reduced airway resistance<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />48- A 54-year old woman was admitted with acute breathlessness. On examination she had a temperature of 37.9oC, a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute, a pulse of 120 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, and a peak expiratory flow rate of 250 litres per minute. Auscultation of the heart and chest was normal. The Chest X-ray was normal and blood gases on air showed: pH 7.35 (7.36 - 7.44)<br /><br /><ul style="text-align: left;"><li>Pa02 6.0</li><li>kPa (11.3 - 12.6)</li><li>PaC02 3.9</li><li>kPa (4.7 - 6.0)</li><li>Serum bicarbonate 20 mmol/l (20 - 28)</li></ul><br />She was started on high flow oxygen. What is the most important next treatment?<br />1) amoxycillin intravenously<br />2) aminophylline intravenously<br />3) intravenous fluids<br />4) low molecular weight heparin<br />5) nebulised salbutamol<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />49- A 76-year-old with a recent history of cerebral haemorrhage is admitted with a cough, worsening breathlessness and right pleuritic chest pain. He is also mildly pyrexial. His ventilation-perfusion scan reveals several areas of ventilation/perfusion mismatches. What is the most appropriate line of management?<br />1) aspirin therapy<br />2) antibiotics<br />3) inferior vena cava filter<br />4) low molecular weight heparin treatment<br />5) warfarin treatment<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />50- Which of the following is a recognised feature of massive pulmonary embolism?<br />1) reduced plasma lactate levels<br />2) an increase in serum troponin levels<br />3) an arterial pH less than 7.2<br />4) blood gases show increased pCO2 on air<br />5) normal D-dimer levels<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_6" style="display: none;">51- Which of the following statements is true of the diffusion capacity of carbon monoxide?<br />1) Is a specific measure of lung perfusion.<br />2) Depends on the thickness of the alveolar wall.<br />3) Depends on the surface area available for gas exchange.<br />4) Is increased in cigarette smokers.<br />5) Is increased in emphysema.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />52- A 19 year old woman became breathless while travelling on an aeroplane. Which one of the following features most strongly supports a diagnosis of acute hyperventilation related to a panic disorder?<br />1) Carpal spasm.<br />2) Finger paraesthesiae.<br />3) Hypotension.<br />4) Light-headedness.<br />5) Loss of conciousness<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />53- A 64-year-old man is found to have squamous cell bronchogenic carcinoma. Which of the following statements is true regarding surgical resection?<br />1) An FEV1 of 2 L is a major contraindication to surgical resection.<br />2) Hypercalcaemia makes further assessment for surgery unnecessary.<br />3) Is precluded if a CT scan of the thorax shows enlarged mediastinal lymph nodes.<br />4) Positive sputum cytology excludes the need for bronchoscopic examination of the airways.<br />5) The presence of finger clubbing indicates that liver metastases are already present.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />54- A 60-year-old man with breathlessness, fever and headache is suspected of having Farmers Lung. A CXR shows diffuse nodular shadowing predominantly in the mid and lower zones. What would be the most useful diagnostic test?<br />1) Blood Culture<br />2) Sputum Culture<br />3) Serum precipitating antibodies to Micropolyspora faeni<br />4) Serum Precipitating antibodies to Aspergillus clavatus<br />5) Serum Precipitating antibodies to Cryptostroma corticale<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />55- A 43-year-old asthmatic develops worsening breathlessness and his full blood count has revealed an eosinophilia. Which of the following statements is true with allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis that the patient is likely to suffer from?<br />1) The immediate skin test to an extract of aspergillus fumigatus is negative<br />2) Circulating IgG precipitins to aspergillus fumigatus are positive<br />3) The CO transfer factor is unaffected<br />4) Recurrent haemoptysis is a characteristic feature<br />5) Pleural effusion is a complication<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />56- A 35-year-old man presents after 3 months of chronic cough with purulent sputum and shortness of breath on exertion. He gives a history of at least two sinus or bronchial infections per year requiring treatment with antibiotics. He also says he and his wife have been unable to have children. He smokes 15 cigarettes per day. Examination is normal except for some wheezing and an area of focal crackles at the left lung base.<br />Chest X-ray shows patchy infiltrates at both bases.<br />Investigations revealed<br /><br /><ul style="text-align: left;"><li>FEV1 2.0 L</li><li>FVC 2.7 L</li><li>pH 7.38</li><li>PaCO2 40 mmHg</li><li>PaO2 82 mmHg</li></ul><br />What is the most likely diagnosis?<br />1) alpha-1-Antitrypsin (Antiprotease) deficiency<br />2) Asthma<br />3) Cystic fibrosis<br />4) Hypogammaglobulinemia<br />5) Immotile cilia syndrome<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />57- An 18 year old attending the A+E department is noted to have central cyanosis. She is perfectly well but was told to go to A+E by her friends who said she looked blue. What is the most likely cause?<br />1) Carbon Monoxide Poisoning<br />2) Lead Poisoning<br />3) Drinking water contaminated with nitrates<br />4) Anorexia Nervosa<br />5) Severe Anaemia<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />58- A 59 year old female smoker is diagnosed with oat cell carcinoma of the bronchus. Which of the following relating to this diagnosis is true?<br />1) The tumour is likely to be radiosensitive<br />2) occurs with equal frequency in smokers and non-smokers<br />3) has a 5 year survival greater than 20%<br />4) Is associated with the elaboration of ectopic ADH secretion<br />5) Is typically associated with ectopic parathormone secretion.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />59- Which of the following conditions may give a false/positive sweat test?<br />1) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia<br />2) Hyperthyroidism<br />3) Hyperparathyroidism<br />4) Obesity<br />5) Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />60- A 60-year-old man was diagnosed last year with adenocarcinoma of the lung, and a 4 cm mass lesion was treated with a right lower lobectomy. He now has an abdominal CT scan that reveals scattered hepatic mass lesions and hilar lymphadenopathy. For several weeks, he has had increasing malaise. A urinalysis reveals marked proteinuria, and a 24 hour urine protein collection is 2.7 g/24hr. His serum urea is 30 mmol/L (2.5 - 7.5) with creatinine of 450 µmol/L (60 - 110). A renal biopsy is performed, and there is focal deposition of IgG and C3 with a granular pattern. He is most likely to have which of the following conditions?<br />1) Goodpasture's syndrome<br />2) Membranous glomerulonephritis<br />3) Minimal change glomerulonephritis<br />4) Nodular glomerulosclerosis<br />5) Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_7" style="display: none;">61- The morphological appearance of Pneumocystis carinii infection in the lung is best characterised as which one of the following?<br />1) A bronchopneumonia with abscess formation<br />2) A haemorrhagic and necrotizing pneumonia<br />3) An acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) with widespread hyaline membrane formation<br />4) An interstitial pneumonitis with foamy intra-alveolar exudate<br />5) An organizing bronchopneumonia<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />62- Which of the following statements is NOT true of primary pulmonary tuberculosis:<br />1) It is characteristically asymptomatic<br />2) Miliary spread is commoner in a younger age group<br />3) The initial immunological response causes hilar lympadenopathy<br />4) pleural effusion occurs before tuberculin skin testing is positive<br />5) A positive tuberculin skin test develops within two weeks of infection<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />63- In which of the following have randomised controlled trials shown that long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) reduces mortality?<br />1) Asthma<br />2) Cor pulmonale due to chronic airflow obstruction<br />3) Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis<br />4) Cystic fibrosis<br />5) Pulmonary sarcoidosis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />64- Which ONE of the following is true regarding acute pulmonary embolism?<br />1) a normal ECG excludes the diagnosis<br />2) embolectomy is more effective than thrombolysis in improving survival<br />3) Heparin is as effective as thrombolytic therapy<br />4) the presence of hypoxaemia is an indication for thrombolysis<br />5) thrombolysis administered through a peripheral vein is as effective as through a pulmonary artery catheter<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />65- A 36 year old man complains of a persistent cough. A CXR shows fibrosis of both upper lobes. What is the most likely diagnosis?<br />1) Systemic Sclerosis<br />2) Primary Pulmonary Hypertension<br />3) Cystic Fibrosis<br />4) Ankylosing Spondylitis<br />5) Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />66- Which one of the following statements is true of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?<br />1) patients show at least a 15 per cent improvement in the FEV1 after nebulised bronchodilator<br />2) inhaled corticosteroid usage does not improve long-term prognosis<br />3) breathlessness is uncommon until the FEV1 falls to approximately 50 per cent of predicted<br />4) emphysema is associated with increased transfer factor<br />5) in advanced cases there is reduced pulmonary vascular resistance<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />67- A 16 year old boy with cystic fibrosis presents with abdominal pain. Which of the following is most likely to be the cause?<br />1) Ulcerative colitis<br />2) Irritable Bowel Syndrome<br />3) Pyelonephritis<br />4) Meconium Ileus Equivalent Syndrome<br />5) Renal Calculi<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />68- A patients' arterial blood gases give the following results; pO2 10 kPa (75mmHg), pCO2 7 kPa (52 mmHg), pH 7.47, [HCO3-] 37. Which of the following is the most likely cause?<br />1) Chronic Hyperventilation Syndrome<br />2) Acute exacerbation of COPD<br />3) Several days of Pyloric obstruction<br />4) Pulmonary Embolism<br />5) Diabetic Coma<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />69- A patient with Rheumatoid arthritis complains of progressive breathlessness. Which of the following is the most likely cause?<br />1) Pulmonary Eosinophilia<br />2) Asthma [0]<br />3) Pulmonary nodules<br />4) Fibrosing Alveolitis<br />5) Pulmonary Embolus<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />70- In the normal adolescent lung which of the following is correct?<br />1) There is an intrapleural pressure of 30 cmH2O (3kPa) at the end of normal expiration.<br />2) There is a resting pulmonary blood flow of 10L/min.<br />3) The V:Q ratio is greater in apical than basal segments of the lung when upright and at rest.<br />4) The majority of airway resistance is from large airways.<br />5) Cartilage is present in all respiratory bronchioles.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_8" style="display: none;">71- Sleep Apnoea syndrome is best diagnosed by the following:<br />1) Polygraphic Sleep Studies<br />2) therapeutic trial of amphetamines<br />3) EEG<br />4) Blood gases during apneic episodes<br />5) Presence of HLA-DR2 and DQw1<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />72- A 70-year-old man presented with weight loss and haemoptysis. He was a heavy smoker. A chest radiograph showed a mass lesion in the left lung bronchoscopic biopsies confirmed a squamous carcinoma.<br />1) Chest wall invasion by primary tumour<br />2) An enlarged mediastinal lymph node on CT scanning<br />3) Forced expiratory volume (FEV1) of 1.2 litres<br />4) Hypercalcaemia<br />5) Malignant pleural effusion<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />73- Which of the following statements regarding prognosis in lung cancer is true?<br />1) Combined modality therapy (chemotherapy, radiation therapy and surgery) has improved overall lung cancer survival to 40% at 5 years.<br />2) Overall lung cancer survival is < 15% at 5 years.<br />3) Patients undergoing radiation therapy have a 5 year survival of 40%.<br />4) Patients who qualify for surgery have a 50% 5 year survival.<br />5) With chemotherapy, overall survival in small cell (oat cell) carcinomas has risen to 60% at 5 years.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />74- A breathless patient undergoes pulmonary Function testing. The following results are obtained; FEV1 = 74% predicted, FVC = 68% predicted, TLC = 77% predicted, Tlco = 46% predicted, Kco = 53% predicted. Which of the following is the most likely cause ?<br />1) COPD<br />2) Asthma<br />3) Cryptogenic Fibrosing Alveolitis<br />4) Morbid obesity<br />5) kyphoscoliosis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />75- A lifelong non-smoker is diagnosed with emphysema. Which of the following would be the most likely aetiological agent ?<br />1) Isocyanates<br />2) Cadmium Exposure<br />3) Steel<br />4) Zinc<br />5) Asbestos<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />76- Which cell type is responsible for the early asthmatic response?<br />1) Basophil<br />2) Eosinophil<br />3) Mast cell<br />4) Neutrophil<br />5) TH1-lymphocyte<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />77- A 43-year-old Caribbean female Comprehensive school teacher complains of slowly increasing breathlessness. She has no smoking history. Investigations reveal she has bilateral enlarged hilar lymph nodes, elevated serum calcium, interstitial lung disease, and enlarged liver and spleen. What is the most likely diagnosis?<br />1) Coccidioidomycosis [0]<br />2) Hyperparathyroidism [0]<br />3) Hypervitaminosis D [0]<br />4) Sarcoidosis [100]<br />5) Tuberculosis [0]<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />78- A 58-year-old man presents with weight loss and haemoptysis. He has smoked most of his life. On examination he is clubbed and has clinical evidence of right pleural effusion. His serum calcium is 3.2mM. Which of the following histological type of lung cancer is he most likely to suffer from?<br />1) mesothelioma<br />2) small cell carcinoma<br />3) large cell carcinoma<br />4) squamous cell carcinoma<br />5) adenocarcinoma<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />79- A 68-year-old man presents with a one-month history of dyspnoea and a 3kg weight loss. On examination there were signs of a large left pleural effusion, confirmed on Chest X-ray.<br />Investigations revealed:<br /><br /><ul style="text-align: left;"><li>Pleural fluid analysis:</li><li>Protein 38 g/L</li></ul><br />Cytology a few lymphocytes and red blood cells.<br />Which one of the following investigations should be considered next?<br />1) Bronchoscopy.<br />2) CT scan of thorax.<br />3) Repeat pleural aspiration with biopsy.<br />4) Thoracoscopic pleural biopsy.<br />5) Tuberculin test.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />80- A 63-year-old woman presents a 5 day history of progressive shortness of breath. Her family brought her in because she was increasingly sleepy during the last 24 hours. She was diagnosed with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease 3 years ago and has a FEV1 less than 50% of predicted. She has an oxygen concentrator at home.<br />Examination revealed depressed consciousness and a respiratory rate of 24 with shallow breaths. There were decreased breath sounds with minimal air movement. If an arterial blood gas on room air were to be performed, which of the following results would you expect?<br />1) pH 7.16 paCO2 70 paO2 50 HCO3 24<br />2) pH 7.24 paCO2 80 paO2 55 HCO3 30<br />3) pH 7.32 paCO2 60 paO2 70 HCO3 30<br />4) pH 7.41 paCO2 40 paO2 50 HCO3 24<br />5) pH 7.48 paCO2 30 paO2 85 HCO3 24<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_9" style="display: none;">81- A 47 year old woman presenting with breathlessness has arterial blood gases taken which give the following results: pO2 8.7 kPa (65mmHg), pCO2 4.4 kPa (33mmHg), pH 7.46, {HCO3-] 24. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis.<br />1) Hyperventilation syndrome<br />2) Acute severe asthma<br />3) Emphysema<br />4) Kyphoscoliosis<br />5) Opiate overdose<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />82- Which of the following forms of pulmonary embolism is the commonest cause of secondary pulmonary hypertension?<br />1) Air embolism (Caisson's disease)<br />2) Fat embolism<br />3) Massive pulmonary embolism (e.g., saddle embolism)<br />4) Multiple small recurrent pulmonary embolism<br />5) Paradoxical embolism<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />83- Primary Pulmonary tuberculosis:<br />1) Leads to pleural effusion<br />2) Is highly infective<br />3) Commonly leads to military TB<br />4) May be totally asymptomatic<br />5) Usually produces cavitation<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />84- An elderly man with a history of asthma, congestive heart failure, and peptic ulcer disease is admitted with bronchospasm and rapid atrial fibrillation. He recieves frequent nebulised salbutamol and IV digoxin loading, his regular medications are continued. 24 hours after admission his serum potassium is noted to be 2.8 mmol/l. Which of his medications is most likely to have caused this abnormality.<br />1) Digoxin<br />2) ACE inhibitor<br />3) Salbutamol<br />4) Ranitidine<br />5) Spironolactone<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />85- The parents of a child with cystic fibrosis consult you wishing to know what is the risk of their next child being a carrier of the condition. Which ONE of the following percentages is the correct risk?<br />1) 0%<br />2) 25%<br />3) 50%<br />4) 75%<br />5) 100%<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />86- Most of the cells that fill the alveoli in desquamative interstitial pneumonitis (DIP) are which of the following?<br />1) Eosinophils<br />2) Lymphocytes<br />3) Macrophages<br />4) Neutrophils<br />5) Plasma cells<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />87- A 50-year-old male is taken to the General Practitioner by his long suffering wife. His snoring (which has been steadily increasing in loudness over the past 18 months) is troublesome at home. She says that he makes noises and moves around whilst asleep. He reports no problems with sleeping. He does admit to gaining 20 kg in weight over the past one year, and to falling asleep during the day.<br />A sleep study is performed. Which of the following findings would be most compatible with this man's clinical presentation?<br />1) Fragmented sleep, cessations of airflow measured at the nose accompanied by an increase in oesophageal pressure swings and episodic oxygen desaturation.<br />2) Normal sleep quality, bradycardic episodes, oxygen desaturation but normal airflow.<br />3) Normal sleep quality but cessations of airflow measured at the nose with decreased abdominal wall motion during these flow cessations.<br />4) Progressive oxygen desaturation during the night and alternating periods of hyperventilation and hypoventilation.<br />5) Tachycardia, sleep fragmentation, episodes of hypoventilation with minimal oxygen desaturation.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />88- A 42 year old woman presents with an acute attack of asthma. She is able to speak in short sentences. Her respiratory rate is 28 breaths per minute and the peak expiratory flow rate 120L/min (predicted 480 L/min. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?<br />1) Intravenous aminophylline.<br />2) Intravenous salbutamol<br />3) Nebulized salbutamol<br />4) Oral salbutamol<br />5) Oral theophylline<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />89- A 15 year old boy presented with wheezing when playing football and nocturnal cough.<br />Which is the best test to confirm the underlying condition?<br />1) A trial of oral corticosteroids<br />2) A trial of inhaled corticosteroids<br />3) A trial of inhaled salbutamol<br />4) Serial peak expiratory flow rate measurements<br />5) Spirometry alone<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />90- Which of the following is NOT true with regard to the radiological appearance of a chest X-ray?<br />1) Consolidation of the right middle lobe will obliterate the right atrial shadow in the PA view<br />2) Consolidation of the right apical lobe will extend to the horizontal fissure in the PA view<br />3) Consolidation of the right anterior segment of the right middle lobe will extend to the right transverse fissure and the right hilum in PA view<br />4) A consolidation of the lingular lobe will obliterate the aortic knuckle and pulmonary trunk in the PA view<br />5) A consolidation of the left lower lobe will elevate the left hemidiaphragm<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_10" style="display: none;">91- Which of the following statements is true of psittacosis (ornithosis):<br />1) It is only a risk from contact with psittacines (parrots), not other birds<br />2) It usually causes many polymorphs to be present in the sputem<br />3) It is more of a risk to children than to adults who are exposed to birds<br />4) It does spread from person to person<br />5) Infection responds rapidly to penicillin therapy<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />92- Which of the following statements is true regarding smoking in pregnancy?<br />1) Smoking assists in maturation of the fetal lung.<br />2) The reduction in birth weight is related to the number of cigarettes smoked per day.<br />3) Maternal smoking may adversely affect testicular function in male children.<br />4) Dysmorphic facies is a recognised complication.<br />5) The newborn baby may require adjustments in drug dosages because of it.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />93- A 54-year old woman was admitted with acute breathlessness. On examination she had a temperature of 37.9oC, a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute, a pulse of 120 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, and a peak expiratory flow rate of 250 litres per minute.<br />Auscultation of the heart and chest was normal.<br />Investigations:<br />The Chest X-ray was normal.<br />blood gases on air showed:<br /><br /><ul style="text-align: left;"><li>pH 7.35 (7.36 - 7.44)</li><li>Pa02 6.0</li><li>kPa (11.3 - 12.6)</li><li>PaC02 3.9</li><li>kPa (4.7 - 6.0)</li><li>Serum bicarbonate 20 mmol/l (20 - 28)</li></ul><br />She was started on high flow oxygen. What is the most important next treatment?<br />1) amoxycillin intravenously<br />2) aminophylline intravenously<br />3) intravenous fluids<br />4) low molecular weight heparin<br />5) nebulised salbutamol<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />94- A 45 year old female presents with a 6 month history of exertional dyspnoea and is diagnosed with pulmonary fibrosis. Over the last one year she has received a variety of medications. Which of the following drugs could be responsible?<br />1) Dexamethasone<br />2) Ibuprofen<br />3) nalidixic acid<br />4) penicillamine<br />5) sulphasalazine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 5 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />95- Which one of the following is correct regarding long-acting beta-2 agonists?<br />1) Can be used to prevent activity-induced symptoms without anti-inflammatory therapy.<br />2) Become less effective over time (tolerance).<br />3) Are beneficial in acute viral croup.<br />4) Protect against allergen challenge for up to 48 hours.<br />5) Should not be used in association with erythromycin.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />96- A 45-year-old man develops facial swelling and breathlessness. His chest X-ray reveals paratracheal lymphadenopathy. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding the superior vena caval obstruction?<br />1) the most common cause is squamous cell carcinoma<br />2) treatment of choice is radiotherapy<br />3) it may be associated with voice hoarseness<br />4) it is associated with Kussmaul's sign<br />5) the commonest symptom is stridor<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />97- A 55 year old man presents with ataxia and bilateral gynaecomastia.<br />Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?<br />1) Kleinfelters Syndrome<br />2) Long term treatment with cyclophosphamide for Wegener's Granulomatosis<br />3) Long term treatment with oral steroids for chronic asthma<br />4) Bronchial Carcinoma<br />5) Hypereosinophilic Syndrome<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />98- A 55-year-old plumber presented with a dry nocturnal cough and increasing exertional breathlessness.<br />On examination he had early finger clubbing, cyanosis and bilateral basal crackles. A chest X-ray showed bilateral lower zone shadowing.<br />Investigations revealed:<br /><br /><ul style="text-align: left;"><li>PaO2 (breathing air) 8.2 kPa (11.3-12.6)</li><li>FEV1/FVC ratio 85%</li></ul><br />Which of the following investigations is most likely to establish the diagnosis?<br />1) Echocardiography.<br />2) High resolution CT scan of chest<br />3) Measurement of diffusion capacity<br />4) Serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) level<br />5) Transbronchial lung biopsy<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />99- Which of the following statemtns regarding the sweat test is true?<br />1) Sweating is enhanced by application of atropine.<br />2) The filter paper is left on for a total of about 4 hours.<br />3) At least 25mg of sweat is necessary for a reliable result.<br />4) More than 60mmol/L of chloride in sweat is diagnostic of cystic fibrosis.<br />5) False/positive results may be encountered in children with nephrotic syndrome.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 4 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />100- A 7 month old boy is presented to a doctor by his parents with symptoms of reccurent upper respiratory tract infections. No other members of the family suffer from any smiliar infections.Physical examination showed mild facial hypoplasia. Biochemistry investigations revealed hypocalcaemia. Microbiological investigations were normal and immunoglobulins were within normal limits. The infants immune function would show the following deficiency:<br />1) Complement Deficieny<br />2) B cell number and function<br />3) T cell number and function<br />4) Plasma Cell<br />5) Macrophage number and function<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />101- Progressive Massive Fibrosis (PMF) is most likely to be found in which of the following?<br />1) Complicated silicosis<br />2) Extrinsic allergic alveolitis<br />3) Lobar pneumonia<br />4) Sarcoidosis<br />5) Simple coal workers pneumoconiosis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />102-A 17-year-old girl with known cystic fibrosis presents with a chest infection. What antibiotic would be most suitable for her?<br />1) Augmentin<br />2) Cefotaxime<br />3) Ceftazidime<br />4) Gentamicin<br />5) Amoxicillin<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 3 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />103-A 21-year-old gentleman with cystic fibrosis presents with infertility. What is the most likely cause for this?<br />1) Chronic prostatic insufficiency<br />2) Failure of development of the vas deferens<br />3) Increasing alkalinisation of semen<br />4) Primary failure of testosterone production<br />5) Production of anti-sperm antibodies<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 2 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />104-A 16-year-old girl presents with shortness of breath and insomnia prior to an examination. Clinical examination is normal. CXR and PEFR are normal. Which of the following investigations is most suggestive of asthma?<br />1) diurnal variation in PEFR> 20%<br />2) positive skin prick test to common allergens<br />3) past medical history of hayfever and eczema<br />4) increased total IgE<br />5) resolution of symptoms the day after the exam<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />105-A 65-year-old female presents with a 3 week history of malaise and blood in her sputum. Bronchoscopy reveals a mass in the right main bronchus, and histology demonstrates it to be a small cell carcinoma. Further investigation fails to show any metastases. What is the most appropriate step in management?<br />1) Chemotherapy<br />2) Endobronchial laser therapy<br />3) Radiotherapy<br />4) Surgery<br />5) Palliative therapy<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : 1 ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /></div> <b>Go to next Page: <span style="color: #3d85c6;"></span></b><br /><div class="post-pagination"><b><span style="color: #3d85c6;"><a class="button_1" href="#">Part 1</a><a class="button_2" href="#">Part 2</a><a class="button_3" href="#">Part 3</a><a class="button_4" href="#">Part 4</a><a class="button_5" href="#">Part 5</a><a class="button_6" href="#">Part 6</a><a class="button_7" href="#">Part 7</a><a class="button_8" href="#">Part 8</a><a class="button_9" href="#">Part 9</a><a class="button_10" href="#">Part 10</a></span></b></div>

mcq medical respiratory staff nurse staffnursemcq MCQs on Respiratory System for Staff Nurse and Medical Exams

1- The following are recognized features of Pancoast's tumour except: 1) ipsilateral Horner's syndrome 2) wasting of the dorsal inte...

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