MCQs on Skin for Staff Nurse and Medical Exams

<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on"><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEih7DHsP2sAZ37Y7En0JEzBHZCbtmRX1xsApjCrd6kYKSDR1DMdQDpCa3T4nPEVkWF_NZM4w7tS3JLh7u7OYLNrGTjgq4YwO21QxkOIqhyphenhyphenkMp5ZFEGmfpRPCTZQ57uTJPmKIkSuvxWp-rVb/s1600/o-PROBLEM-SKIN-FRONT-facebook+1.jpg" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img border="0" height="320" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEih7DHsP2sAZ37Y7En0JEzBHZCbtmRX1xsApjCrd6kYKSDR1DMdQDpCa3T4nPEVkWF_NZM4w7tS3JLh7u7OYLNrGTjgq4YwO21QxkOIqhyphenhyphenkMp5ZFEGmfpRPCTZQ57uTJPmKIkSuvxWp-rVb/s640/o-PROBLEM-SKIN-FRONT-facebook+1.jpg" width="640" /></a></div><div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on">1.healthy skin requires special care to maintain its health, elasticity, vibrancy and?<br /><br />A.  color<br />B.  pallor<br />C.  dryness<br />D.  dullness<br />Ans: A <br /><br />2.what is the technical name for the study, including its structure, functions and treatment?<br /><br />A.  etiology<br />B.  anatomy<br />C.  pathology<br />D.  dermatology<br />Ans: D <br /><br />3.the outermost layer of the skin is called the ?<br /><br />A.  corium<br />B.  dermis<br />C.  adipose<br />D.  epidermis<br />Ans: D <br /><br />4.which of the following layers of skin does not contain and blood vessels?<br /><br />A.  cutis<br />B.  dermis<br />C.  corium<br />D.  epidermis<br />Ans: D <br /><br />5.what is another name for the stratum germinativum?<br /><br />A.  epidermis<br />B.  dermal layer<br />C.  stratum lucidum<br />D.  basal layer or stratum basale<br />Ans: D <br /><br />6.Where does mitosis (cell division) or replacment of the skin take place?<br /><br />A.  stratum lucidum<br />B.  stratum corneum<br />C.  stratum granulosm<br />D.  statum greminativum<br />Ans: D <br /><br />7.the stratum germinativm and what other layer of skin contain melanin?<br /><br />A.  dermis<br />B.  subcutaneous<br />C.  stratum corneum<br />D.  stratum spinosum<br />Ans: D <br /><br />8.on the human body, the thickest skin is located on the:<br /><br />A.  thighs<br />B.  buttocks<br />C.  abdomen<br />D.  palms and soles<br />Ans: D<br /><br />9.The layer of the epidermis that sheds keratin cells that are constantly replaced is the?<br /><br />A.  stratum lucidum<br />B.  stratum corneum<br />C.  stratum mucosum<br />D.  stratum granlosum<br />Ans: B <br /><br />10.what quality is notable about the stratum corneum?<br /><br />A.  it is the thinnest layer of skin<br />B.  it is the weakest layer of skin<br />C.  it is the toughest layer of skin<br />D.  it is lowermost layer of skin<br />Ans: C<br /><br />11.the stratum corneum is composed of ?<br /><br />A.  melanin<br />B.  granules<br />C.  keratin cells<br />D.  squamous cells<br />Ans: C<br /><br />12.which layer is the top, or uppermost, layer of the epidermis?<br /><br />A.  dermis<br />B.  stratum corneum<br />C.  stratum mucosum<br />D.  stratum granulosum<br />Ans: B<br /><br />13.where are the blood vessels found that supply the skin?<br /><br />A.  dermis<br />B.  epidermis<br />C.  stratum lucidum<br />D.  stratum corneum<br />Ans: A<br /><br />14.sudoriferous glands, sebaceous glands sensory nerve endings, blood vessels, arrector pili muscles and a major  portion of each hair follicle are found in the ?<br />A.  dermis<br />B.  epidermis<br />C.  stratum corneum<br />D.  startum spinosum<br />Ans: A<br /><br />15.what part of the skin is often referred to as "true skin"<br /><br />A.  dermis<br />B.  epidermis<br />C.  stratum corneum<br />D.  stratum spinosum<br />Ans: A<br /><br />16.which layer of the skin produces collgen protein and elastin fibers to help give the skin its elasicity and pliability?<br /><br />A.  dermis<br />B.  epidermis<br />C.  stratum lucidum<br />D.  stratum graninativum<br />Ans: A<br /><br />17.the deterioration of collagen and elastiin fibers during fibers during the aging process causes?<br /><br />A.  rosacea<br />B.  freckles<br />C.  macules<br />D.  wrinkles<br />Ans: D<br /><br />18.what is major function of the sudoriferous gland?<br /><br />A.  gives skin texture<br />B.  gives skin a healthy color<br />C.  protects the skin's elasticity<br />D.  helps to regulate body temperature<br />Ans: D<br /><br />19.sweat or perspitation is secreted by what gland?<br /><br />A.  adrenal<br />B.  endocrine<br />C.  sebaceous<br />D.  sudoriferous<br />Ans: D<br /><br />20.the small openings onto the skin from the sudoriferous glands are called ?<br /><br />A.  ducts<br />B.  pores<br />C.  glands<br />D.  follicles<br />Ans: B<br /><br />21.the sudoriferous (sweat) glands are referred to as:<br /><br />A.  nervous system<br />B.  muscular system<br />C.  endocrine system<br />D.  circulatory system<br />Ans: A<br /><br />22.sudoriferous and sebaceous glands are referred to as ?<br /><br />A.  pores<br />B.  follicles<br />C.  duct glands<br />D.  ductless glands<br />Ans: C<br /><br />23.control and regilation of body temperature by the sudoriferous glands help maintan the body temperture at?<br /><br />A.  78.0 f or 29.4 c<br />B.  94.0 f or 87.9 c<br />C.  88.6 f or 37 c<br />D.  98.6 f or 37 c<br />Ans: D<br /><br />24.the greatest concentration of sudorferous glands is found on the?<br /><br />A.  arms<br />B.  eyelids<br />C.  midsection of the body<br />D.  palms, soles,scalp and forehead and underarms<br />Ans: D<br /><br />25.the sebaceous gland produces:<br /><br />A.  melanin<br />B.  dandruff<br />C.  sebum (oil.<br />D.  perspiration<br />Ans: C<br /><br />26. on what area of the body would you not find any sebaceous glands?<br /><br />A.  the face<br />B.  in the groin area<br />C.  on the arms and legs<br />D.  on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet<br />Ans: D<br /><br />27.what is the function of sebum?<br /><br />A.  carry melanin<br />B.  produce sweat<br />C.  give skin elasticity<br />D.  keep skin from drying and chapping<br />Ans: D<br /><br />28.the papillary canal take oil (sebum) to the?<br /><br />A.  nerve<br />B.  keratin<br />C.  blood vessels<br />D.  surface of the skin<br />Ans: D<br /><br />29.where is the layer of skin called the subcutaneous layer located ?<br /><br />A.  above the cuticle<br />B.  below the dermis<br />C.  above the epidermis<br />D.  below the adipose tissue<br />Ans: B<br /><br />30.the subcutaneous tissue of skin is made up of mostly?<br /><br />A.  keratin<br />B.  muscle<br />C.  melanin<br />D.  fatty cells<br />Ans: D<br /><br />31.what layer of the skin contains large blood vessels that transport nouishment to skin and nerve ?<br /><br />A.  epidermis<br />B.  melanin layer<br />C.  spinum spinosum<br />D.  subcutaneous layer<br />Ans: D<br /><br />32.what factor would cause a reaction in sensory nerve fibers?<br /><br />A.  fear<br />B.  light<br />C.  sound<br />D.  cold temperatures<br />Ans: D<br /><br />33.what tans the skin to help protect it from harmful ultraviolet rays?<br /><br />A.  sebum<br />B.  melanin<br />C.  the acid mantle<br />D.  the subcutaneous layer<br />Ans: B<br /><br />34.light skin and dark skin differ in the ?<br /><br />A.  number of melanocytes the contain<br />B.  rate and amount of melanin produced<br />C.  number of nerve endings the contain<br />D.  number of epidermal cells they contain<br />Ans: B<br /><br />35.almost 90% of the skin's wrinkles are caused by ?<br /><br />A.  exposure to the sun<br />B.  exposure to pollutants<br />C.  excessive use of astringents<br />D.  excessive exposure to fluorescent lights<br />Ans: A<br /><br />36.on the human body, the thinnest skin is located on the ?<br /><br />A.  chin<br />B.  eyelids<br />C.  soles of the feet<br />D.  skull just behind the ears<br />Ans: B<br /><br />37.healthy skin's pH level of 4.5 to 5.5 is?<br /><br />A.  highly acidic<br />B.  acid-balanced<br />C.  highly alkaline<br />D.  slightly alkaline<br />Ans: B<br /><br />38.how should a salon profession react if the client has a skin disease?<br /><br />A.  prescribe proper treatment<br />B.  suggest home remedies to client<br />C.  perform the service while wearing gloves<br />D.  refer client to a physician or dermatologist<br />Ans: D<br /><br />39.chronic is the term used to identify condition that are ?<br /><br />A.  visible<br />B.  brief and severe<br />C.  frequent and habitual<br />D.  influenced by weather<br />Ans: C<br /><br />40.the term used to identify conditions that are brief and severe is ?<br /><br />A.  acute<br />B.  chronic<br />C.  objective<br />D.  subjective<br />Ans: A<br /><br />41.a disease that spreads by personal contact is known as?<br /><br />A.  systemic<br />B.  congenital<br />C.  contagious<br />D.  occupational<br />Ans: C<br /><br />42.a disease influenced by weather is referred to as?<br /><br />A.  serial<br />B.  rational<br />C.  seasonal<br />D.  inflammable<br />Ans: C<br /><br />43.what is the technical name for the study of the cause of diseases?<br /><br />A.  etiology<br />B.  anatomy<br />C.  pathology<br />D.  dermatology<br />Ans: A<br /><br />44.what is the technical term for the study of deseases?<br /><br />A.  eitology<br />B.  anatomy<br />C.  pathology<br />D.  dermatology<br />Ans: C<br /><br />45.indicating a medical opinion of a future condition of illness is known as a(an.?<br /><br />A.  analysis<br />B.  diagnosis<br />C.  prognosis<br />D.  recognition<br />Ans: c<br /><br />46.an alleegic reaction to cosmetics or chemicals which salon professionals may be susceptible to is called?<br /><br />A.  papules<br />B.  chloasma<br />C.  lenigines<br />D.  sermatitis venenata<br />Ans: D<br /><br />47.an example of a subjective symptom would be?<br /><br />A.  itching<br />B.  swelling<br />C.  redness<br />D.  discharge<br />Ans: A<br /><br />48.abnormal changes in the structure of organs or tissues are called primary and secondary?<br /><br />A.  wheal<br />B.  fissure<br />C.  lesions<br />D.  infection<br />Ans: C<br /><br />49.a freckle is an example of which type of primary skin lesion?<br /><br />A.  lentigo<br />B.  papule<br />C.  macule<br />D.  leukoderma<br />Ans: C<br /><br />50.a papule is an example of a ?<br /><br />A.  tertiary lesion<br />B.  primary skin lesion<br />C.  subjective symptom<br />D.  secondary skin lesion<br />Ans: B<br /><br />51.vesicles can be produced by which of the following conditions?<br /><br />A.  callus<br />B.  verrucas<br />C.  poison ivy<br />D.  dry, scaly skin<br />Ans: C<br /><br />52.herpes simplex is the technical term for?<br /><br />A.  acne<br />B.  eczema<br />C.  psoriasis<br />D.  fever blisters<br />Ans: D<br /><br />53.a solid mass in the skin that could be soft or hard, fixed or freely movable and may be elevated or deep iscalled a ?<br /><br />A.  crust<br />B.  callus<br />C.  tumor<br />D.  wheal<br />Ans: C<br /><br />54.a cyst is defined by which of the following description?<br /><br />A.  oozing sore<br />B.  wheal lesions<br />C.  crack in the skin<br />D.  abnormal membranous sac<br />Ans: D<br /><br />55.a secondary lesion appearing as round, dry patches of skin covered with rough, silvert scales is called?<br /><br />A.  acne<br />B.  eczema<br />C.  psoriasis<br />D.  herpes simplex<br />Ans: C<br /><br />56.which of the following skin lesions often occurs when skin loses its flesibility due to exposure to wind, cold, water, etc and cracks in the skin appear?<br /><br />A.  stain<br />B.  tumor<br />C.  fissure<br />D.  papule<br />Ans: C<br /><br />57.the lesion found following the healing of an injury is called a(n.?<br /><br />A.  vitiligo<br />B.  fissure<br />C.  scar<br />D.  excoriation<br />Ans: C<br /><br />58.which of the following terms is another name for a keratoma?<br /><br />A.  a wart<br />B.  a callus<br />C.  a tumor<br />D.  a birthmark<br />Ans: B<br /><br />59.what may happen to the skin if an area is subject to pressure or friction over a long period of time?<br /><br />A.  it may wear thin<br />B.  it may become shiny<br />C.  it may scale and flake<br />D.  it may become callused<br />Ans: D<br /><br />60.verruca is a name given to a variety of?<br /><br />A.  warts<br />B.  ulcers<br />C.  fissures<br />D.  skin tags<br />Ans: A<br /><br />61.melanotic sarcoma is a skin cancer that begins with?<br /><br />A.  a mole<br />B.  an ulcer<br />C.  lentigines<br />D.  miliaria rubra<br />Ans: A<br /><br />62.what is the technical name for liver spots?<br /><br />A.  rubra<br />B.  crustacea<br />C.  chloasma<br />D.  leukoderma<br />Ans: C<br /><br />63.what is another name for a stain in the skin caused by the dilation of the small blood vessels in the skin, also known as a birthmark?<br /><br />A.  scar<br />B.  callus<br />C.  nevus<br />D.  verruca<br />Ans: C<br /><br />64.comedone is the technical name for?<br /><br />A.  nevus<br />B.  macule<br />C.  blackhead<br />D.  whitehead<br />Ans: C<br /><br />65.what is the techical term for a decrease in activity of melanocytes?<br /><br />A.  acne<br />B.  verruca<br />C.  leukoderma<br />D.  melanoderma<br />Ans: C<br /><br />66.accumulations of hardened sebum beneath the skin are called whiteheads or:<br /><br />A.  acne<br />B.  milia<br />C.  rosacea<br />D.  comedones<br />Ans: B<br /><br />67.acne most often occurs on the ?<br /><br />A.  legs, hips, and arms<br />B.  face, back and chest<br />C.  fingers, toes and soles<br />D.  ankles, knees and elbow<br />Ans: B<br /><br />68.ance can be found in two stages, acne simplex and:<br /><br />A.  rosacea<br />B.  asteatosis<br />C.  acne vulagarsis<br />D.  deep-seated acne<br />Ans: C<br /><br />69.what is the professinal action to take when a client with rosacea requests a facial service with you?<br /><br />A.  refer clients to another salon<br />B.  avoid the issue of rosacea<br />C.  proceed with the service but wear protective gloves<br />D.  proceed with the service with approval of the client's physician<br />Ans: D<br /><br />70.what is a condition called that is characterized by dry, scaly skin caused by a decreased production of sebum?<br /><br />A.  rosacea<br />B.  steatoma<br />C.  asteatosis<br />D.  seborrhea<br />Ans: C<br /><br />71.which disorder is caused by excessive secretion of the sebaceous glands?<br /><br />A.  millia<br />B.  asteatosis<br />C.  seborrhea<br />D.  bromidrosis<br />Ans: C<br /><br />72.where does a steatoma most often appear?<br /><br />A.  on the arms, legs and chest<br />B.  on the face, feet and hands<br />C.  on the fingers, feet and toes<br />D.  on the scalp, neck and back<br />Ans: D<br /><br />73.what is the definition of bromidrosis?<br /><br />A.  excessive sebum<br />B.  the lack of sebum<br />C.  the lack of perspiration<br />D.  foul-smelling perspiration<br />Ans: D<br /><br />74.the lack of perspiration caused by fever or disease is called?<br /><br />A.  anhidrosis<br />B.  osmidrosis<br />C.  bromidrosis<br />D.  hyperhidrosis<br />Ans: A<br /><br />75.what is the disorder called that is an overproduction of perspiration caused by excessive heat or general body  weakness?<br /><br />A.  osmidrosis<br />B.  anhidrosis<br />C.  bromidrosis<br />D.  hyperhidosis<br />Ans: D<br /><br />76.which of the following terms does NOT describe a guideline that can indicate skin cancer?<br /><br />A.  color<br />B.  border<br />C.  texture<br />D.  asymmetry<br />Ans: C<br /><br />77.products that work tofurther cleanse the skin and return it to its normal pH include?<br /><br />A.  oils<br />B.  massage creams<br />C.  manual exfoliants<br />D.  astringents and tonic lotions<br />Ans: D<br /><br />78.a term that is used to describe moisturizing is ?<br /><br />A.  oiling<br />B.  toning<br />C.  hydrating<br />D.  cleansing<br />Ans: C<br /><br />79.applying pressure to motor points will have which of the following effects?<br /><br />A.  inflame and irrtate muscles<br />B.  increase secretion<br />C.  decrease production<br />D.  soothe and stimulate nerves and muscles<br />Ans: D<br /><br />80.effleurage is a massage movement that involves a:<br /><br />A.  circular movement with no gliding<br />B.  light tapping or slapping movement<br />C.  light, gentle stroking or circular movement<br />D.  light or heavy kneading and rolling of muscles<br />Ans: C<br /><br />81.the gentle massage movement  that often begins and ends a massage treatment is ?<br /><br />A.  vibration<br />B.  effleurage<br />C.  petrissage<br />D.  tapotement<br />Ans: B<br /><br />82.the massage manipulation that consists of heavy kneading and rolling of the muscles is called:<br /><br />A.  friction<br />B.  vibration<br />C.  petrissage<br />D.  tapotement<br />Ans: C<br /><br />83.which massage manipulation deeply stimules the muscles, nerves and skin glands?<br /><br />A.  friction<br />B.  vibration<br />C.  petrissage<br />D.  tapotement<br />  Ans: C<br /><br />84.the massage movement that should not be used when the client needs soothing is?<br /><br />A.  gliding<br />B.  stroking<br />C.  effleurage<br />D.  tapotement<br />Ans: D<br /><div><br /></div></div></div>

dermatology mcq medical skin staff nurse staffnursemcq MCQs on Skin for Staff Nurse and Medical Exams

1.healthy skin requires special care to maintain its health, elasticity, vibrancy and? A.  color B.  pallor C.  dryness D.  dullness Ans: A ...

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MCQ's on Autonomic Nervous System for Staff Nurses and Medical Exams [Objective]

<div class="content_1">1. In the autonomic regulation of blood pressure<br />(A) Cardiac output is maintained constant at the expense of other hemodynamic variables<br />(B) Elevation of blood pressure results in elevated aldosterone secretion<br />(C) Baroreceptor nerve fibers docrease firing rate when arterial pressure increases<br />(D) Stroke volume and mean arterial blood pressure are the primary direct determinants of cardiac output<br />(E) A condition that reduces the sensitivity of the sensory baroreceptor nerve endings might cause an increase in sympathetic discharge<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />2. The autonomic nervous system is also known as<br />(A) Visceral<br />(B) Vegetative<br />(C) Involuntary nervous system<br />(D) All of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />3. Full activation of the sympathetic nervous system, as in maximal exercise, can produce all of the following responses except<br />(A) Bronchial relaxation<br />(B) Decreases intestinal motility<br />(C) Increased renal blood flow<br />(D) Mydriasis<br />(E) Increased heart rate (tachycardia)<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />4. Several children at a summer camp were hospitalized with symptoms thought to be due to ingestion of food containing botulinum toxins. The effects of botulinum toxin are likely to include<br />(A) Bronchospasm<br />(B) Cycloplegia<br />(C) Diarrhea<br />(D) Skeletal muscle spasms<br />(E) Hyperventilation<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />5. The neurotransmitter agent that is normally released in the sinoatrial node of the heart in response to a blood pressure increase is<br />(A) Acetylcholine<br />(B) Dopamine<br />(C) Epinephrine<br />(D) Glutamate<br />(E) Norepinephrine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />6. A direct-acting cholinomimetic that is lipid-soluble and often used in the treatment of glaucoma is<br />(A) Acetylcholine<br />(B) Bethanechol<br />(C) Physostigmine<br />(D) Pilocarpine<br />(E) Neostigmine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />7. Which of the following agents is a prodrug that is much less toxic in mammals than in insects ?<br />(A) Acetylcholine<br />(B) Bethanechol<br />(C) Physostigmine<br />(D) Pilocarpine<br />(E) Neostigmine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />8. Atropine overdose may cause which one of the following<br />(A) Gastrointestinal smooth muscle crampine<br />(B) Increased cardiac rate<br />(C) Increased gastric secretion<br />(D) Pupillary constriction<br />(E) Urinary frequency<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />9. The synaptic pre-ganglionic neurons have their cell bodies in the lateral horn of the grey matter of the<br />(A) Thoracic segment only<br />(B) Lumbar segment only<br />(C) Both (A) and (B)<br />(D) None of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />10. Which one of the following can be blocked by atropine?<br />(A) Decreased blood pressure caused by hexamethonium<br />(B) Increased blood pressure caused by nicotine<br />(C) Increased skeleton muscle strength caused by neostigmine<br />(D) Tachycardia caused by exercise<br />(E) Tachycardia caused by infusion of acetylcholine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : E ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_2" style="display: none;">11. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of scopolamine ?<br />(A) Irreversible antagonist at nicotinic receptors<br />(B) Irreversible antagonist at muscarinic receptors<br />(C) Physiologic antagonist at muscarinic receptors<br />(D) Reversible antagonist at muscarinic receptors<br />(E) Reversible antagonist at nicotinic receptors<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />12. Accepted therapeutic indications for the use of antimuscarinic drugs include all of the following except<br />(A) Hypertension<br />(B) Motion sickness<br />(C) Parkinson’s disease<br />(D) Postoperative bladder spasm<br />(E) Traveler’s diarrhea<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />13. In male sex organs _______ system is responsible for erection.<br />(A) Sympathetic<br />(B) Parasympathetic<br />(C) Norepinephrine<br />(D) None of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />14. A 7-years-old boy has a significant bedwetting problem. A long-acting indirect sympathomimetic agent sometimes used by the oral route for this and other indications is<br />(A) Dobutamine<br />(B) Ephedrine<br />(C) Epinephrine<br />(D) Isoproterenol<br />(E) Phenylephrine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />15. When pupillary dilation-but not cycloplegia-is desired, a good choice is<br />(A) Homatropine<br />(B) Isoproterenol<br />(C) Phenylephrine<br />(D) Pilocarpine<br />(E) Tropicamide<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />16. ‘Fight or flight’ state can be described as<br />(A) Sympathetic active; para-sympathetic quiescent<br />(B) Sympathetic active; para-sympathetic active<br />(C) Sympathetic quiescent; para-sympathetic active<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />17. Your patient is to receive a selective ß2 stimulant drug ß2 selective stimulant are often effective in<br />(A) Angina due to coronary insufficiency<br />(B) Asthma<br />(C) Chronic heart failure<br />(D) Delayed or insufficiently strong labor<br />(E) All of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />18. Which of the following drugs is the drug of choice in anaphylaxis associated with bronchospasm and hypotension ?<br />(A) Cortisone<br />(B) Epinephrine<br />(C) Isoproterenol<br />(D) Norepinephrine<br />(E) Phenylephrine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />19. Which of the following effects of epinephrine would be blocked by phentolamine but not by metoprolol ?<br />(A) Cardiac stimulation<br />(B) Contractionof radial smooth muscle in the iris<br />(C) Increase of camp in fat<br />(D) Relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle<br />(E) Relaxation of the uterus<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />20. Propranolol is useful in all of the following except<br />(A) Angina<br />(B) Familial tremor<br />(C) Hypertension<br />(D) Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic cardiomyopathy<br />(E) Partial atrioverntricular heart block<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : E ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_3" style="display: none;">21. ‘Rest and digest’ state can be described as<br />(A) Sympathetic active; para-sympathetic quiescent<br />(B) Sympathetic active; para-sympathetic active<br />(C) Sympathetic quiescent; para-sympathetic active<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />22. A friend has very severe hypertension and asks about a drug her doctor wishes to prescribe. Her physician has explained that this drug is associated with tachycardia and fluid retention (which may be marked) and increased hair growth. Which of the following is most likely to produce the effects that your friend has described?<br />(A) Captopril<br />(B) Guanethidine<br />(C) Minoxidil<br />(D) Prazosin<br />(E) Propranolol<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />23. Which one of the following is characteristic of captopril and enalapril ?<br />(A) Competitively blocks angiotensim II at its receptor<br />(B) Decreases angiotensin II concentration in the blood<br />(C) Decreases rennin concentration in the blood<br />(D) Increases sodium and decreases potassium in the blood<br />(E) Decreases sodium and increases potassium in the urine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />24. Postural hypotension is a common adverse effect of which one of the following types of drugs ?<br />(A) ACE inhibitors<br />(B) Alpha-receptor blockers<br />(C) Arteriolar dilators<br />(D) ß1 – selective receptor blockers<br />(E) Nonselective ß - blockers<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />25. A visitor from another city comes to your office complaining of incessant cough. He has diabetes and hypertension and has recently started taking a different antihypertensive medication. The most likely cause of his cough is<br />(A) Enalapril<br />(B) Losartan<br />(C) Minoxidil<br />(D) Propranolol<br />(E) Verapamil<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />26. Reserprine, an alkaloid derived from the root of Rauwolfia serpentina<br />(A) Can be used to control hyperglycemia<br />(B) Can cause severe depression of mood<br />(C) Can decrease gastrointestinal secretion and motility<br />(D) Has no cardiac effects<br />(E) A spare receptor agonist<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />27. Nitroglycerin, either directly or through reflexes, results in which one of the following effects<br />(A) Decreased heart rate<br />(B) Decreased venous capacitance<br />(C) Increased afterload<br />(D) Increased cardiac force<br />(E) Increased diastolic intramyocardial fiber tension<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />28. The antianginal effect of propranolol may be attributed to which one of the following<br />(A) Block of exercise – induced tachycardia<br />(B) Decreased end – diastolic ventricular volume<br />(C) Dilation of consticted coronary vessels<br />(D) Increased cardiac force<br />(E) Increased resting heart rate<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />29. The major common determinant of myocardial oxygen consumption is<br />(A) Blood volume<br />(B) Cardiac output<br />(C) Diastolic blood pressure<br />(D) Heart rate<br />(E) Myocardial fiber tension<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : E ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />30. Choose the incorrect statement from the following<br />(A) Sympathetic system increases rate of SA node<br />(B) Sympathetic system causes constriction of coronary arteries<br />(C) Sympathetic system causes increased motility of GIT smooth muscles<br />(D) Sympathetic system causes constriction of sphincter in GIT<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_4" style="display: none;">31. Denervation super-sensitivity includes<br />(A) Proliferation of receptors<br />(B) Loss of mechanism for transmitter removal<br />(C) Increased post-junctional responsiveness<br />(D) All of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />32. Which of the following is approved for the treatment of hemorrhagic stroke ?<br />(A) Amyl nitrite<br />(B) Hydralazine<br />(C) Isosorbide moninitrate<br />(D) Nifedipine<br />(E) Nimodipine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : E ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />33. Which of the following drugs used for the treatment of angina by inhalation has a very rapid onset and a brief duration of effect ?<br />(A) Amyl nitrite<br />(B) Hydralazine<br />(C) Isosorbide mononitrate<br />(D) Nifedipine<br />(E) Nimodipine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />34. Which of the following is a vasodilator drug used for hypertension that lacks a direct effect on autonomic receptors but may provoke anginal attacks?<br />(A) Amyl nitrite<br />(B) Hydralazine<br />(C) Isosorbide mononitrate<br />(D) Nifedipine<br />(E) Nimodipine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />35. The biochemical mechanism of action of digitalis is associated with<br />(A) A decrease in calcium uptake by the sarcoplasmic reticulum<br />(B) An increase in ATP synthesis<br />(C) A modification of the actin molecule<br />(D) An increase in systolic intracellular calcium levels<br />(E) A block of sodium/calcium exchange<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />36. A patient has been taking digoxin for several years for chronic heart failure is about to receive atropine for another condition. A common effect of digoxin (at therapeutic blood levels) that can be almost entirely blocked by atropine is<br />(A) Decreased appetite<br />(B) Increased atrial contractility<br />(C) Increased PR interval on the ECG<br />(D) Headaches<br />(E) Tachycardia<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />37. In a patient given a cardiac glycoside, important effects of the drug on the heart include which of the following?<br />(A) Decreased atrioventricular conduction velocity<br />(B) Decreased ejection time<br />(C) Increased ectopic automaticity<br />(D) Increased ectopic automaticity<br />(E) All of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : E ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />38. Which of the following situations constitutes an added risk of digoxin toxicity ?<br />(A) Starting administration of captopril<br />(B) Starting administration of quinidine<br />(C) Hyperkalemia<br />(D) Hypermagnesemia<br />(E) Hypocalcemia<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />39. At rest, the interior of the typical mammalian neuronal axon potential is approximately ________ mV<br />(A) 0<br />(B) –70<br />(C) –100<br />(D) –20<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />40. Following enzyme is involved in the synthesis of actylcholine<br />(A) Choline acetyl transferase<br />(B) Acetyl cholinesterase<br />(C) Both (A) and (B)<br />(D) None of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_5" style="display: none;">41. Which of the following has been shown to prolong life in patient with chronic congestive failure but has a negative inotropic effect on cardiac contractility?<br />(A) Carvedilol<br />(B) Digitoxin<br />(C) Digoxin<br />(D) Dobutamine<br />(E) Enalapril<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />42. Which of the following is the drug of choice in treating suicidal overdose of digitoxin ?<br />(A) Digoxin antibodies<br />(B) Lidocaine<br />(C) Magnesium<br />(D) Potassium<br />(E) Quinidine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />43. When used as an antiarrhythmic drug, Lidocaine typically<br />(A) Increases action potential duration<br />(B) Increases contractility<br />(C) Increses PR interval<br />(D) Reduces abnormal automaticity<br />(E) Reduces resting potential<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />44. A 16-year-old-girl is found to have paroxysmal attacks of rapid heart rate. The antiarrhythmic of choice in most cases of acute AV nodal tachycardia is<br />(A) Adenosine<br />(B) Amiodarone<br />(C) Flecainide<br />(D) Propranolol<br />(E) Quinidine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />45. Recognized adverse effects of quinidine include which one of the following?<br />(A) Cinchonism<br />(B) Constipation<br />(C) Lupus erythematosus<br />(D) Increase in digoxin clearance<br />(E) Precipitation of hyperthyroidism<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />46. Following is an antagonist of ganglion type nicotinic receptors<br />(A) Tubercurarine<br />(B) a-bungarotoxin<br />(C) Trimethaphan<br />(D) All of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />47. Which of the following is an orally active drug that blocks sodium channels and decreases action potential duration?<br />(A) Adenosine<br />(B) Amiodarone<br />(C) Disopyramide<br />(D) Esmolol<br />(E) Mexiletine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : E ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />48. Which of the following has the longest half-life of all antiarrhythmic drugs?<br />(A) Adenosine<br />(B) Amiodarone<br />(C) Disopyramide<br />(D) Esmolol<br />(E) Flecainide<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />49. Which of the following diuretics would be most useful in a patient with cerebral edema?<br />(A) Acetazolamide<br />(B) Amiloride<br />(C) Ethacrynic acid<br />(D) Furosemide<br />(E) Mannitol<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : E ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />50. Which of the following therapies would be most useful in the management of severe hypercalcemia?<br />(A) Amiloride plus saline infusion<br />(B) Furosemide plus saline infusion<br />(C) Hydrochlorothiazide plus saline infusion<br />(D) Mannitol plus saline infusion<br />(E) Spironolactone plus saline infusion<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_6" style="display: none;">51. A 55-year-old patient with severe posthepatitis cirrhosis is started on a diuretic for another condition. Two days later he is found in a coma. The drug most likely to cause coma in a patient with cirrhosis is<br />(A) Acetazolamide<br />(B) Amiloride<br />(C) Furosemide<br />(D) Hydrochlorothiazide<br />(E) Spironolactone<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />52. Oxytremorine is a selective agonist of muscarinic _______ receptors<br />(A) M1<br />(B) M2<br />(C) M3<br />(D) M4<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />53. A drug that is useful in glaucoma and high-altitude sickness is<br />(A) Acetazolamide<br />(B) Amiloride<br />(C) Demeclocycline<br />(D) Desmopressin<br />(E) Ethacrynic acid<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />54. Cromolyn has as its major action<br />(A) Block of calcium channels in lymphocytes<br />(B) Block of mediator release from mast cells<br />(C) Block of phosphodiesterase in mast cells and basophils<br />(D) Smooth muscle relaxation in the bronchi<br />(E) Stimulation of cortisol release by the adrenals<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />55. Following events occur in the cytoplasm and not inside storage vesicles, except<br />(A) Conversion of tyrosine to dopa<br />(B) Conversion of dopa to dopamine<br />(C) Conversion of dopamine to norepinephrine<br />(D) Conversion of dopamine to 3,4 dihydroxy phenyl acetic acid<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />56. Which one of the following is lest likely to be useful in the therapy of hypercalcemia?<br />(A) Calcitonin<br />(B) Glucocorticoids<br />(C) Plicamycin<br />(D) Parenteral infusion of phosphate<br />(E) Thiazide diuretics<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : E ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />57. Characteristics of Vitamin D and its metabolites include which one of the following?<br />(A) Act to decrease serum levels of calcium<br />(B) Activation of their Vitamin D receptors increases cellular CAMP<br />(C) Calcitriol is the major derivative responsible for increasing intestinal absorption of phosphate<br />(D) Metabolites of Vitamin D increase renal excretion of calcium<br />(E) Vitamin D deficiency results in Pager’s disease<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />58. Which of the following conditions is an indication for the use of calcitonin?<br />(A) Chronic renal failure<br />(B) Hypoparathyroidism<br />(C) Intestinal osteodystrophy<br />(D) Pager’s disease<br />(E) Rickets<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />59. Clinical uses of Vitamin D do not include<br />(A) Chronic renal failure<br />(B) Hyperparathyroidism<br />(C) Intestinal osteodystrophy<br />(D) Nutritional rickets<br />(E) Osteoporosis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />60. Which one of the following drugs, when used chronically, is associated with the development of bone pain and mineralization defects such as osteomalacia?<br />(A) Calcitonin<br />(B) Dihydrotachysterol<br />(C) Ergocalciferol<br />(D) Etidronate<br />(E) Norgestrel<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_7" style="display: none;">61. A 70-year-old man has severe urinary hesitancy associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia. He has tried alpha blockers with little relief. His physician recommends a drug that blocks 5a - reductase in the prostate and writes a prescription for<br />(A) Atropine<br />(B) Clonidine<br />(C) Hydralazine<br />(D) Neostigmine<br />(E) Propranolol<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />62. Action of norepinephrine and epinephrine are terminated by<br />(A) Reuptake into nerve terminal<br />(B) Dilution by diffusion and uptake at extraneuronal site<br />(C) Metabolic transformation<br />(D) All of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />63. Typical results of beta-receptor activation include which one of the following?<br />(A) Hypoglycemia<br />(B) Lipolysis<br />(C) Glycogen synthesis<br />(D) Decreased skeletal muscle tremor<br />(E) Decreased rennin secretion<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />64. A patient is admitted to the emergency room with orthostatic hypotension and evidence of marked GI bleeding. Which of the following most accurately describes the probable autonomic response to this bleeding?<br />(A) Slow heart rate, dilated pupils, damp skin<br />(B) Rapid heart rate, dilated pupils, damp skin<br />(C) Slow heart rate, dry skin, increased bowel sounds<br />(D) Rapid heart rate, constricted pupils, increased bowel sounds<br />(E) Rapid heart rate, constricted pupils, warm skin<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />65. Drugs that block the a receptor on effector cells at adrenergic nerve endings<br />(A) Antagonize the effects of isoproterenol on the heart rate<br />(B) Antagonize some of the effects of epinephrine on the blood pressure<br />(C) Antagonize the effects of epinephrine on adenylyl cyclase<br />(D) Cause mydriasis<br />(E) Decreases blood glucose levels<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />66. Yohimbine is an antagonist of ______ receptors.<br />(A) a1<br />(B) a2<br />(C) both (A) and (B)<br />(D) None of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />67. Which of the following organs is innervated only by parasympathetic nerves ?<br />(A) Iris muscles<br />(B) Ciliary muscle<br />(C) Sweat glands<br />(D) Splenic capsule<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />68. Muscarinic cholinergic receptors<br />(A) Are located only on parasympathetically innervated effector cells<br />(B) Mediate responses by opening an instrinsic Na+ ion channel<br />(C) Are present on vascular endothelium which has no cholinergic nerve supply<br />(D) Predominate in the autonomic ganglia<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />69. The cardiac muscarinic receptors<br />(A) Are of the M1 subtype<br />(B) Are of the M2 subtype<br />(C) Are selectively blocked by pirenzepine<br />(D) Function through the PIP2 ? IP3/DAG pathway<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />70. Atropine does not exert relaxant/ antispasmodic effect on the following muscle<br />(A) Intestinal<br />(B) Ureteric<br />(C) Bronchial<br />(D) Layngeal<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_8" style="display: none;">71. a1 – receptors are coupled with _______ G protein.<br />(A) Gs<br />(B) Gi<br />(C) Gq<br />(D) Go<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />72. Hyoscine differs from atropine in that it<br />(A) Exerts depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses<br />(B) Exerts more potent effects on the heart than on the eye<br />(C) Is longer acting<br />(D) Has weaker antimotion sickness activity<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />73. Which of the following anticholinergic drugs is primarily used in preanaesthetic medication and during surgery<br />(A) Glycopyrrolate<br />(B) Pipenzolate methyl bromide<br />(C) Isopropamide<br />(D) Dicyclomine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />74. Glycopyrrolate is the preferred antimuscannic drug for use before and during surgery because<br />(A) It is potent and fast acting<br />(B) It has no central action<br />(C) It has antisecretory and vagolytic actions<br />(D) All of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />75. Which of the following mydriatics has the fastest and briefest action ?<br />(A) Atropine<br />(B) Homatropine<br />(C) Tropicamide<br />(D) Cyclopentolate<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />76. The most suitable mydratic for a patient of corneal ulcer is<br />(A) Atropine sulfate<br />(B) Homatropine<br />(C) Cyclopentolate<br />(D) Tropicamide<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />77. The most effective antidote for belladonna poisoning is<br />(A) Neostigmine<br />(B) Physostigmine<br />(C) Pilocarpine<br />(D) Methacholine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />78. Atropine is contraindicated in<br />(A) Cyclic AMP<br />(B) Inositol trisphosphate<br />(C) Diacyl glycerols<br />(D) G protein<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />79. Select the correct statement from the following about a1 – adrenergic receptor agonists<br />(A) Isoproterenol > epinephrine = norepinephrine<br />(B) Epinephrine > isoproterenol > norepinephrine<br />(C) Isoproterenol = epinephrine = norepinephrine<br />(D) Epinephrine = norepinephrine > isoproterenol<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />80. The most efficacious inhibitor of catecholamine synthesis in the body is<br />(A) a - methyl – p - tyrosine<br />(B) a - methyldopa<br />(C) a - methyl - norepinephrine<br />(D) Pyrogallol<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_9" style="display: none;"> 81. Tyramine induces release of noradrenaline from adrenergic nerve endings<br />(A) By depolarizing the axonal membrane<br />(B) By mobilizing Ca2+<br />(C) By a nonexocytotic process<br />(D) Only in the presence of MAO inhibitors<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />82. Choose the correct statement from the following about a1 – adrenergic receptor agonists<br />(A) Norepinephrine > isoproterenol > epinephrine<br />(B) Norepinephrine < epinephrine > isoproterenol<br />(C) Epinephrine = norepinephrine >> isoproterenol<br />(D) Epinephrine > isoproterenol > norepinephrine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />83. A sympathomimetic amine that acts almost exclusively by releasing noradrenaline from the nerve endings is<br />(A) Ephedrine<br />(B) Dopamine<br />(C) Isoprenaline<br />(D) Tyramine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />84. Low doses of adrenaline dilate the following vascular bed<br />(A) Cutaneous<br />(B) Mucosal<br />(C) Renal<br />(D) Skeletal muscle<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />85. a2–adrenergic receptors are associated with following except<br />(A) Increase in phospholipase C activity<br />(B) Increase in potassium channel conductance<br />(C) Decrease in calcium channel conductance<br />(D) Increase in adenylyl cyclase activity<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />86. Adrenaline raises blood glucose level by the following actions except<br />(A) Inducing hepatic glycogenolysis<br />(B) Inhibiting insulin secretion from pancreatic ß cells<br />(C) Augmenting glucagons secretion from pancreatic a cells<br />(D) Inhibiting peripheral glucose utilization<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />87. Noradrenaline is administered by<br />(A) Subcutaneous injection<br />(B) Intramuscular injection<br />(C) Slow intravenous infusion<br />(D) All of the above routes<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />88. Dobutamine differs from dopamine in that<br />(A) It does not activate peripheral dopaminergic receptors<br />(B) It does not activate adrenergic ß receptors<br />(C) It causes pronounced tachycardia<br />(D) It has good blood-brain barrier penetrability<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />89. Ephedrine is similar to adrenaline in the following feature<br />(A) Potency<br />(B) Inability to penetrate blood-brain barrier<br />(C) Duration of action<br />(D) Producing both a and ß adrenergic effects<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />90. Continuous exposure of ctecholaminesensitive cells and tissues to adrenergic agonists causes a progressive diminition in their capacity to respond, this phenomenon is called as<br />(A) Refractoriness<br />(B) Desensitization<br />(C) Tachyphylaxis<br />(D) All of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_10" style="display: none;">91. While undergoing a surgical procedure a patient develops hypotension. Which of the following drugs can be injected intramuscularly to raise his BP<br />(A) Noradrenaline<br />(B) Isoprenaline<br />(C) Mephentermine<br />(D) Isoxsuprine<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />92. Vasoconstrictors should not be used in<br />(A) Neurogenic shock<br />(B) Haemorrhagic shock<br />(C) Secondary shock<br />(D) Hypotension due to spinal anaesthesia<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />93. Guanethidine inhibits<br />(A) Synthesis of transmitter<br />(B) Metabolism of transmitter<br />(C) Release of transmitter<br />(D) Displacement of transmitter from axonal terminal<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />94. The drug which produces vasoconstriction despite being an a adrenergic blocker is<br />(A) Phenoxybenzamine<br />(B) Ergotamine<br />(C) Dihydroergotoxine<br />(D) Tolazoline<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />95. Prazosin is an effective antihypertensive while nonselective a adrenergic blockers are not because<br />(A) It is the only orally active a blocker<br />(B) It improves plasma lipid profile<br />(C) It does not concurrently enhance noradrenaline release<br />(D) It improves urine flow in males with prostatic hypertrophy<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />96. Which of the following is true of sildenafil<br />(A) It enhances sexul enjoyment in normal men<br />(B) It delays ejaculation<br />(C) It is indicated only for treatment of erectile dysfunction in men<br />(D) It blocks cavernosal a2 adrenoceptors<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />97. The ß-adrenergic blocker which possesses both ß1 selectivity as well as intrinsic sympathomimetic activity is<br />(A) Alprenolol<br />(B) Atenolol<br />(C) Acebutolol<br />(D) Metoprolol<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />98. Propanolol can be used to allay anxiety associated with<br />(A) Chronic neurotic disorer<br />(B) Schizopherenia<br />(C) Short-term stressful situation<br />(D) Endogenous depression<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />99. Propranolol does not block the following action of adrenaline<br />(A) Bronchodilation<br />(B) Lipolysis<br />(C) Muscle tremor<br />(D) Mydriasis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />100. Phenylephrine<br />(A) Mimics the transmitter at post-synaptic receptors<br />(B) Displaces transmitter from axonal terminal<br />(C) Inhibits synthesis of transmitter<br />(D) None of the above<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /></div><script language="JavaScript1.2" type="text/javascript"> //The functions disableselect() and reEnable() are used to return the status of events. function disableselect(e) { return false } function reEnable() { return true } //if IE4 // disable text selection document.onselectstart=new Function ("return false") //if NS6 if (window.sidebar) { //document.onmousedown=disableselect // the above line creates issues in mozilla so keep it commented. document.onclick=reEnable } function clickIE() { if (document.all) { (message); return false; } } </script><b>Go to next Page: <span style="color: #3d85c6;"></span></b><br /><div class="post-pagination"><b><span style="color: #3d85c6;"><a class="button_1" href="#">Part 1</a><a class="button_2" href="#">Part 2</a><a class="button_3" href="#">Part 3</a><a class="button_4" href="#">Part 4</a><a class="button_5" href="#">Part 5</a><a class="button_6" href="#">Part 6</a><a class="button_7" href="#">Part 7</a><a class="button_8" href="#">Part 8</a><a class="button_9" href="#">Part 9</a><a class="button_10" href="#">Part 10</a></span></b></div>

dermatology mcq medical staff nurse staffnursemcq MCQ's on Autonomic Nervous System for Staff Nurses and Medical Exams [Objective]

1. In the autonomic regulation of blood pressure (A) Cardiac output is maintained constant at the expense of other hemodynamic variables (B)...

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MCQ's on Dermatology for Staff Nurses and Medical Exam [Objective]

<div dir="ltr" style="text-align: left;" trbidi="on"><div class="separator" style="clear: both; text-align: center;"><a href="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhJ-AloVLDfZUJSd-r0sNy8nU6QrdDv-FMXMrj5HCDPRtXzFpsnsEI5BctxlqVmO40kNT_GQNUhAahPxPHAcY4aizMmsakRzbpYsKpsG4WXOYg2v4Aoy7SWyFvT9DgbmCa3bz2DiJRt5tCZ/s1600/Dermatology-mcq+1.jpg" imageanchor="1" style="margin-left: 1em; margin-right: 1em;"><img alt="MCQ's on Dermatology for Staff Nurses and Medical Exam [Objective]" border="0" height="218" src="https://blogger.googleusercontent.com/img/b/R29vZ2xl/AVvXsEhJ-AloVLDfZUJSd-r0sNy8nU6QrdDv-FMXMrj5HCDPRtXzFpsnsEI5BctxlqVmO40kNT_GQNUhAahPxPHAcY4aizMmsakRzbpYsKpsG4WXOYg2v4Aoy7SWyFvT9DgbmCa3bz2DiJRt5tCZ/s640/Dermatology-mcq+1.jpg" title="" width="640" /></a></div><br /></div><div class="content_1">1. Which of the following would be prescribed for acne?<br />(A) Actiq<br />(B) Actonel<br />(C) Accu­Check<br />(D) Accutane<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />2. An absence of pigment in the skin is called<br />(A) acanthosis nigricans<br />(B) albinism<br />(C) melanism<br />(D) xanthoderma<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />3. A burn which involves 2 layers of the skin and estroys the nerves and blood vessels, but does not go down to muscle or bone is a<br />(A) first­degree burn<br />(B) second­degree burn<br />(C) third­degree burn<br />(D) full­thickness burn<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />4. Death of tissue associated with loss of blood supply to the affected area is called<br />(A) cellulitis<br />(B) eczema<br />(C) gangrene<br />(D) psoriasis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />5. An acute eruption of intensely itchy papules or wheals is called<br />(A) acne vulgaris<br />(B) pityriasis rosea<br />(C) psoriasis<br />(D) urticaria (hives.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />6. Moles with the potential to develop into malignant melanoma are<br />(A) intradermal nevi<br />(B) dysplastic nevi<br />(C) giant nevi<br />(D) verrucae<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />7. The type of cyst contains yellowish sebum and is commonly found on the scalp, vulva, and scrotum.<br />(A) papule<br />(B) sebaceous cyst<br />(C) ulcer<br />(D) vesicle<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />8. Excessive hair on the face or body, especially in women, is called:<br />(A) albinism<br />(B) atrichia<br />(C) alopecia<br />(D) hirsutism<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />9. The half­moon shaped, white area located at the base of a fingernail is called the<br />(A) basal layer<br />(B) cuticle<br />(C) lunula<br />(D) stratum<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />10. An epidermal growth caused by a virus (wart.) is called a<br />(A) impetigo<br />(B) melanoma<br />(C) nevus<br />(D) verruca<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_2" style="display: none;">11. Yellowing of the skin is indicative of<br />(A) hyperbillirubinemia<br />(B) hyperuricemia<br />(C) hyperkalemia<br />(D) hyporeninemia<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />12. Which of the following is a combining form meaning skin?<br />(A) adip/o<br />(B) cutane/o<br />(C) pachy/o<br />(D) xanth/o<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />13. A chronic dermatitis of unknown etiology in patients with a history of allergy is called<br />(A) actinic dermatitis<br />(B) atopic dermatitis<br />(C) stasis dermatitis<br />(D) seborrheic dermatitis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />14. The outermost layer of skin is the<br />(A) dermis<br />(B) endodermis<br />(C) epidermis<br />(D) hypodermis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />15. Of the three layers of the skin, which is the thick, fat­containing layer?<br />(A) dermis<br />(B) epidermis<br />(C) epithelium<br />(D) subcutaneous tissue<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />16. The brown­black pigment of the skin that is transferred to other epidermal cells and gives the skin its color is called<br />(A) albumin<br />(B) collagen<br />(C) keratin<br />(D) melanin<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />17. Which of the following is transcribed correctly?<br />(A) The patient was given metronidazole for rosacea and Lamisil for onychomycosis.<br />(B) The patient was given metronidazole for roseola and Lamisil for onychomycosis.<br />(C) The patient was given metronidazole for roseola and Lamisil for onychomycosis.<br />(D) The patient was given metroprolol for rosacea and Lamisil for onychomycosis.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />18. Apocrine glands produce<br />(A) mucus<br />(B) sebum<br />(C) sweat<br />(D) keratin<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />19. Which of the following infections is also known as ringworm?<br />(A) folliculitis<br />(B) herpes simplex<br />(C) impetigo<br />(D) tinea corporis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />20. Another term for itching is<br />(A) dermatitis<br />(B) keratosis<br />(C) petechiae<br />(D) pruritus<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_3" style="display: none;">21. The skin, hair, nails, and glands all make up this system of the body.<br />(A) integumentary system<br />(B) lymphatic system<br />(C) musculoskeletal system<br />(D) nervous system<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />22. Clotrimazole and nystatin are both<br />(A) topical antifungals<br />(B) anti­itch creams<br />(C) topical antibiotics<br />(D) used to treat eczema<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />23. Which skin neoplasm is associated with an increase in the growth of cells in the keratin layer of the epidermis caused by pressure or friction?<br />(A) callus<br />(B) keloid<br />(C) keratosis<br />(D) leukoplakia<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />24. In this condition, there is a scaly dermatitis affecting parts of the skin that are supplied by oil glands.<br />(A) chronic dermatitis<br />(B) contact dermatitis<br />(C) eczema<br />(D) seborrheic dermatitis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />25. Which of the following is a fungal infection?<br />(A) lichen planus<br />(B) keratosis<br />(C) suborrhea<br />(D) tinea capitis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />26. A groove or a crack­like sore is called a (an.<br />(A) fissure<br />(B) nodule<br />(C) polyp<br />(D) ulcer<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />27. Which of the following is transcribed correctly?<br />(A) This 58­year­old woman had a biopsy proven melanom(A) Clarks level 1, on the left cheek.<br />(B) This 58­year­old woman had a biopsy­proven melanom(A) Clark's level 1, on the left cheek.<br />(C) This 58­year­old woman had a biopsy proven melen(A) Clark level 1, on the left cheek<br />(D) This 58­year­old woman had a biopsy­proven melanom(A) Clark level 1, on the left cheek.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />28. Follicular dilation involving the nose and portions of the cheeks, erythema, papules, and pustules are classic signs of this dermatologic disorder.<br />(A) acne cosmetica<br />(B) acne pustulosa<br />(C) acne rosacea<br />(D) acne vulgaris<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />29. A skin disorder most often caused by the herpes virus and consisting of red lesions that look like targets is<br />(A) candidiasis<br />(B) erythema multiforme<br />(C) hirsutism<br />(D) keratosis pilaris<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />30. The vascular layer of skin is the<br />(A) dermis<br />(B) epidermis<br />(C) stratum corneum unguis<br />(D) hypodermis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_4" style="display: none;">31. When scraping for demodex, it may be helpful to pinch the skin while you scrap(E)<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />32. Impetigo is confined to the glabrous areas of a dog's body<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />33. What is the growth phase of a hair follicle?<br />(A) Anagen<br />(B) Catagen<br />(C) Growagen<br />(D) Telogen<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />34. What is one way to distinguise ARF from FAD?<br />(A) Excoriations<br />(B) Papules<br />(C) GI Signs<br />(D) Scratching of muzzle<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />35. Atopy is curable<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />36. Animals with fur have what type of follicles?<br />(A) Simple<br />(B) Intermediate<br />(C) Compound<br />(D) Fuzzy<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />37. When is a dog "cured" of demodex?<br />(A) Disease free for 1 year<br />(B) After 2 negative scrapes<br />(C) Never<br />(D) After 1 negative scrape<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />38. Dermatophilosis is zoonotic<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />39. Accral lick dermatitis can be a behavioral problem<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />40. Superficial pyoderma is a secondary disease process.<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_5" style="display: none;">41. Eosinophillic Granuloma Complex is a disease in and of itself.<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />42. FAD is what type of reaction?<br />(A) Type I (Misse(D)<br />(B) Type II<br />(C) Type III<br />(D) Type IV (Misse(D)<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />Ans: A,D<br />43. All in contact dogs should be treated in a scabies cas(E)<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />44. Canine FAD lesions are usually found on the rump, feline are on the hea(D)<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />45. Failure to treat localized demedocosis will cause the dog to develop generalized demedocsis later on.<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />46. What is the resting phase of a hair follicle?<br />(A) Anagen<br />(B) Catagen<br />(C) Relaxagen<br />(D) Telogen<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />47. Notoedres can only infect cats<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />48. Wetting an area down with alchohol before plucking hairs for culture will decrease inaccurate tests.<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />49. What is the signalment for pemphigus foliaceus?<br />(A) Any age<br />(B) Elderly animals<br />(C) Very young puppies<br />(D) Young to middle aged adults<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />50. Otitis externa is very common in dogs with scabies.<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_6" style="display: none;">51. Juvenile Cellulitis can appear in days<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />52. Age of onsent for puppy pyoderma<br />(A) 2­9 Months<br />(B) 3­6 months<br />(C) 6 months­ 1 year<br />(D) 8 weeks­6 months<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />53. What is the transition phase of a hair follicle?<br />(A) Telogen<br />(B) Catagen<br />(C) Zenagen<br />(D) Anagen<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />54. In atopy, the allergens are absorbed via the skin<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />55. Puppies grow out of their puppy coats<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />56. When culturing a pustule, the area must first be cleaned<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />57. Juvenile Cellulitis in dogs usually affects what part of the body<br />(A) Face<br />(B) Glabrous areas<br />(C) Body wide<br />(D) Axilla<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />58. What is the signalment for juvenile cellulitis<br />(A) 6 month<br />(B) 1 year<br />(C) 3­16 week old puppies<br />(D) 8­12 weeks<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />59. Demodex mites live where?<br />(A) Stratum Corneum<br />(B) All skin layers<br />(C) In the follicle<br />(D) On the hair shaft<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />60. FAD and insect hypersensitivity in horses are both similar not only in their presentation, but also in their "cure".<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_7" style="display: none;">61. Demodectic mange is pruritic<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />62. It is necessary to clean the environment to eliminate ringworm<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />63. Which AB is responsible for atopy?<br />(A) IgA<br />(B) IgE<br />(C) IgG<br />(D) IgW<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />64. If not pruritic, linear granulomas should be treated how<br />(A) Prednisone<br />(B) Prednisolone<br />(C) Scientific Neglect<br />(D) Cyclosporin<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />65. Where are scabies mites found?<br />(A) Hair Follicles<br />(B) Stratum Corneum<br />(C) Sub­epidermal<br />(D) Throughout the skin layers<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />66 Surface irritation and inflammation caused by frictional trauma of skin on skin<br />(A) Skin Fold Dermatitis<br />(B) Furunculosis<br />(C) Alopecia<br />(D) Vesicle<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />67. Small elevation of skin containing purulent material<br />(A) Papule<br />(B) Pustule<br />(C) Vesicle<br />(D) Cyst<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />68. An erosion exposes the dermis underneath<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />69. An ulcer is:<br />(A) Shallow Epidermal defect<br />(B) Break in epidermis with exposure of dermis<br />(C) Not good for coffee drinkers<br />(D) A primary problem<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />70. Alopecia is:<br />(A) Full or partial hair loss<br />(B) Difficult for men to deal with<br />(C) Only full hair loss<br />(D) Never where you want it to be<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_8" style="display: none;">71. Pyotraumatic Dermatitis is also known as a "hot spot"<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />72. Excessive scaling is:<br />(A) Gross<br />(B) Seborrhea<br />(C) Dandruff<br />(D) Epidermal Collarette<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />73. A vesicle is a sharply circumscribed lesion containing fluid<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />74. What is another term for intertrigo?<br />(A) Furunculosis<br />(B) Pyotraumatic Dermatitis<br />(C) Skin Fold Dermatitis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />75. Circumscribed, developmental skin defect<br />(A) Nevus<br />(B) Macule<br />(C) Papule<br />(D) Pustule<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />76. Scale is an accumulation of fragments of stratum corneum<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />77. Inflammation secondary to rupture of a hair follicle<br />(A) Furunculosis<br />(B) Pustule<br />(C) Vesicle<br />(D) Plaque<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />78. Remnants of a pustule, vesicle, or bulla can be<br />(A) Epidermal Collarette<br />(B) Scale<br />(C) Plaque<br />(D) Cyst<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />79. Circumscribed lesion that is raised and consists of edema is urticaria<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />80. What is a bulla?<br />(A) Taunted by a bulla fighta<br />(B) A large vesicle<br />(C) Hives<br />(D) A large cyst<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_9" style="display: none;">81. A comedone is a primary problem only<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />82. Actinic means related to chemically active rays of the electromagnetic spectrum.<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />83. Accumulation of keratin and follicular material that adheres to hair shaft<br />(A) Impetigo<br />(B) Scales<br />(C) Follicular Cast<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />84. Thickening of the epidermis and/or dermis<br />(A) Callus<br />(B) Lichenification<br />(C) Scaling<br />(D) Lacking in sensitive people<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />85. Circumscribed, non­palpable area characterized by color change<br />(A) Patch<br />(B) Papule<br />(C) Macule<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />86. A patch is a large macule<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />87. "Scratch" is a lay term for excoriation<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />88. Dilated hair follicle containing cornified cells and debris<br />(A) Comedone<br />(B) Pustule<br />(C) Furunculosis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />89. A cicatrix is:<br />(A) benign<br />(B) a lesion<br />(C) a scar<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />90. A cyst is a closed sack of pouch under the skin.<br />(A) true<br />(B) false<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><div class="content_10" style="display: none;"> 91. Ecchymosis me<input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />Ans:<br />(A) A condition of the ear<br />(B) Skin discoloration<br />(C) Excessive sweating<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />92. Eczema is an inflammatory condition of the skin.<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />93. Erythema:<br />(A) blood condition<br />(B) red<br />(C) lack of pigmentation<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />94. Gangrene is necrosis (dea(D) tissue due to decomposition.<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />95. Herpes is:<br />(A) An S.T.(D)<br />(B) a cold sore or fever blister<br />(C) an invasion of pyogenic bacterium<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />96. Herpes Zoster is most commonly known as:<br />(A) shingles<br />(B) an enlarged fever blister<br />(C) blue colored skin<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />97. Cyanoderma me<input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />Ans:<br />(A) red skin<br />(B) blue skin<br />(C) yellow skin<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />98. Impetigo is a contagious bacterial skin infection with pustules that ruptur(E)<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />99. Kaposi's Sarcoma is a cancer associated with:<br /><br />(A) Smokers<br />(B) (A)I.(D)S.<br />(C) Sun exposure<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />100. A Laceration is:<br />(A) a pathological change in tissue<br />(B) torn skin<br />(C) laser treatment for skin diseas(E)<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /><br />101. Metastasis means to:<br />(A) spread infection from one person to another<br />(B) move or spread through the blood stream or lymph nodes<br />(C) abnormal breast condition<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />102. Benign means non­-cancerous.<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />103. A 1st degree burn is:<br />(A) the most severe type of burn<br />(B) superficial burn injuring the top layer of skin<br />(C) the first time the patient has been burne(D)<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />104. ___________ means itching caused by dry skin, parasitic infection or diseas(E)<br />(A) Scabies<br />(B) Herpes Zoster<br />(C) Pruritis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />105. Tinea ________ means ring worm, athlete's foot.<br />(A) purpura<br />(B) impetigo<br />(C) corporis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />106. Scabies is a contagious skin condition caused by parasitic mites.<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />107. Pediculosis me<input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />Ans:<br />(A) Inflammatory condition of the skin.<br />(B) Infestation with lice<br />(C) Irritated and peeling feet.<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />108. Petechiae is a small _____________ spot on the skin.<br />(A) hemorragic<br />(B) raised<br />(C) discolored<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />109. Urticaria me<input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />Ans:<br />(A) allergic reaction of the skin<br />(B) thickened skin<br />(C) dead tissue<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />110. SLE stands for_________________ and is an autoimmune diseas(E)<br />(A) squamous laceration ecchymosis<br />(B) systemic lupus erythematosus<br />(C) septic lymphodic edema<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />111. Similar to a vescle but larger usually more than 5mm in diameter, consisting of clear fluid accumulated within or below the epidermis.<br />(A) Vesicle<br />(B) Pustule<br />(C) Bulla<br />(D) Cyst<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />112. Dried exudate on the surface of the skin.<br />(A) Plaque<br />(B) Crust<br />(C) Scale<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />113. A localised area of colour or textural change in the skin<br />(A) Macule<br />(B) Ecchymosis<br />(C) Freckle<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />114. Alopecia is the absence of hair?<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />115. Atrophic skin is thin, translucent and wrinkled with easily visable blood vessels<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />116. An acute abcess formation in adjacent hair follicles.<br />(A) Carbuncle<br />(B) Furuncle<br />(C) Folliculitis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />117. A compressible papule or plaque of dermal oedema, red or white in colour.<br />(A) Urticaria (Misse(D)<br />(B) Erythema<br />(C) Wheal (Misse(D)<br />(D) Purpura<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />Ans: A,C<br />118. A pustule is a visible collection of pus in a blister. Pustules can be seen in psoriasis<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />119. A purulent inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissue<br />(A) Erythema<br />(B) Ecchymosis<br />(C) Cellulitis<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />120. A small solid elevation of the skin, generally defined as less than 5mm, maybe flat or domeshape(D)<br />(A) Nodule<br />(B) Papule<br />(C) Macule<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : B ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />121. Irritants cause more contact dermatitis than allergens do?<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />122. Contact dermatitis, which of the following are common irritants?<br />(A) Water (Misse(D)<br />(B) temperature extremes (Misse(D)<br />(C) Frictional abrasives (Misse(D)<br />(D) Nickel<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />123. Atopic eczema induces lichenification<br />(A) True<br />(B) False<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : A ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />124. Treatments used to treat Atopic eczema<br />(A) Emollients (Misse(D)<br />(B) Antihistamines (Misse(D)<br />(C) Hot baths<br />(D) Topical steroids (Misse(D)<br />(E) Antibiotics (Misse(D)<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : C ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br />125. Types of Eczema<br />(A) Discoid eczema (Misse(D)<br />(B) Seborrhoeic Dermatitis (Misse(D)<br />(C) Venous eczema (Misse(D)<br />(D) Arthiritic dermatitis<br />(E) Lichen simplex chronicus (Misse(D)<br />F. Lichen striatus (Misse(D)<br /><input color="black" onclick="value=("Answer : D ")" type="button" value="Show Answer" /><br /><br /></div><script language="JavaScript1.2" type="text/javascript"> //The functions disableselect() and reEnable() are used to return the status of events. function disableselect(e) { return false } function reEnable() { return true } //if IE4 // disable text selection document.onselectstart=new Function ("return false") //if NS6 if (window.sidebar) { //document.onmousedown=disableselect // the above line creates issues in mozilla so keep it commented. document.onclick=reEnable } function clickIE() { if (document.all) { (message); return false; } } </script><b>Go to next Page: <span style="color: #3d85c6;"></span></b><br /><div class="post-pagination"><b><span style="color: #3d85c6;"><a class="button_1" href="#">Part 1</a><a class="button_2" href="#">Part 2</a><a class="button_3" href="#">Part 3</a><a class="button_4" href="#">Part 4</a><a class="button_5" href="#">Part 5</a><a class="button_6" href="#">Part 6</a><a class="button_7" href="#">Part 7</a><a class="button_8" href="#">Part 8</a><a class="button_9" href="#">Part 9</a><a class="button_10" href="#">Part 10</a></span></b></div>

dermatology mcq medical staff nurse staffnursemcq MCQ's on Dermatology for Staff Nurses and Medical Exam [Objective]

1. Which of the following would be prescribed for acne? (A) Actiq (B) Actonel (C) Accu­Check (D) Accutane 2. An absence of pigment in the sk...

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